5 Government Hacking 5 Government Hacking

Week 8

Week 8 (Nov. 13, 2023): Government Hacking

Last week, we discussed U.S. government proposals to compel electronic device manufacturers and online communications service providers to build in a mechanism for law enforcement to access the plaintext of encrypted data - that is, to compel the intentional addition of new vulnerabilities to those devices and services. This week, we’ll study how the U.S. and other governments (and their private-sector contractors) exploit existing and unintentional vulnerabilities in order to hack people whom the governments wish to surveil or apprehend. 

5.1 Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure, Rule 41: Search and Seizure 5.1 Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure, Rule 41: Search and Seizure

Here is a redacted Word document, in which I’ve made the same elisions as I’ve made in the text below (to take out the parts of the rule that you don’t need to read). Here is the full, unredacted rule.

Rule 41. Search and Seizure

(a) Scope and Definitions.

(1) Scope. This rule does not modify any statute regulating search or seizure, or the issuance and execution of a search warrant in special circumstances.

(2) Definitions. The following definitions apply under this rule:

(A) “Property” includes documents, books, papers, any other tangible objects, and information.

(B) “Daytime” means the hours between 6:00 a.m. and 10:00 p.m. according to local time.

(C) “Federal law enforcement officer” means a government agent (other than an attorney for the government) who is engaged in enforcing the criminal laws and is within any category of officers authorized by the Attorney General to request a search warrant.

(D) “Domestic terrorism” and “international terrorism” have the meanings set out in 18 U.S.C. §2331.

(E) “Tracking device” has the meaning set out in 18 U.S.C. §3117 (b).

(b) Venue for a Warrant Application. 

At the request of a federal law enforcement officer or an attorney for the government:

(1) a magistrate judge with authority in the district—or if none is reasonably available, a judge of a state court of record in the district—has authority to issue a warrant to search for and seize a person or property located within the district;

(2) a magistrate judge with authority in the district has authority to issue a warrant for a person or property outside the district if the person or property is located within the district when the warrant is issued but might move or be moved outside the district before the warrant is executed;

(3) a magistrate judge—in an investigation of domestic terrorism or international terrorism—with authority in any district in which activities related to the terrorism may have occurred has authority to issue a warrant for a person or property within or outside that district;

(4) a magistrate judge with authority in the district has authority to issue a warrant to install within the district a tracking device; the warrant may authorize use of the device to track the movement of a person or property located within the district, outside the district, or both; and

(5) a magistrate judge having authority in any district where activities related to the crime may have occurred, or in the District of Columbia, may issue a warrant for property that is located outside the jurisdiction of any state or district, but within any of the following:

(A) a United States territory, possession, or commonwealth;

(B) the premises—no matter who owns them—of a United States diplomatic or consular mission in a foreign state, including any appurtenant building, part of a building, or land used for the mission's purposes; or

(C) a residence and any appurtenant land owned or leased by the United States and used by United States personnel assigned to a United States diplomatic or consular mission in a foreign state.

(6) a magistrate judge with authority in any district where activities related to a crime may have occurred has authority to issue a warrant to use remote access to search electronic storage media and to seize or copy electronically stored information located within or outside that district if:

(A) the district where the media or information is located has been concealed through technological means; or

(B) in an investigation of a violation of 18 U.S.C. § 1030(a)(5), the media are protected computers that have been damaged without authorization and are located in five or more districts.

(c) Persons or Property Subject to Search or Seizure. 

A warrant may be issued for any of the following:

(1) evidence of a crime;

(2) contraband, fruits of crime, or other items illegally possessed;

(3) property designed for use, intended for use, or used in committing a crime; or

(4) a person to be arrested or a person who is unlawfully restrained.

(d) Obtaining a Warrant.

(1) In General. After receiving an affidavit or other information, a magistrate judge—or if authorized by Rule 41(b), a judge of a state court of record—must issue the warrant if there is probable cause to search for and seize a person or property or to install and use a tracking device.

(2) Requesting a Warrant in the Presence of a Judge.

(A) Warrant on an Affidavit. When a federal law enforcement officer or an attorney for the government presents an affidavit in support of a warrant, the judge may require the affiant to appear personally and may examine under oath the affiant and any witness the affiant produces.

(B) Warrant on Sworn Testimony. The judge may wholly or partially dispense with a written affidavit and base a warrant on sworn testimony if doing so is reasonable under the circumstances.

(C) Recording Testimony. Testimony taken in support of a warrant must be recorded by a court reporter or by a suitable recording device, and the judge must file the transcript or recording with the clerk, along with any affidavit.

(3) Requesting a Warrant by Telephonic or Other Reliable Electronic Means. In accordance with Rule 4.1, a magistrate judge may issue a warrant based on information communicated by telephone or other reliable electronic means.

(e) Issuing the Warrant.

(1) In General. The magistrate judge or a judge of a state court of record must issue the warrant to an officer authorized to execute it.

(2) Contents of the Warrant.

(A) Warrant to Search for and Seize a Person or Property. Except for a tracking-device warrant, the warrant must identify the person or property to be searched, identify any person or property to be seized, and designate the magistrate judge to whom it must be returned. The warrant must command the officer to:

(i) execute the warrant within a specified time no longer than 14 days;

(ii) execute the warrant during the daytime, unless the judge for good cause expressly authorizes execution at another time; and

(iii) return the warrant to the magistrate judge designated in the warrant.

(B) Warrant Seeking Electronically Stored Information. A warrant under Rule 41(e)(2)(A) may authorize the seizure of electronic storage media or the seizure or copying of electronically stored information. Unless otherwise specified, the warrant authorizes a later review of the media or information consistent with the warrant. The time for executing the warrant in Rule 41(e)(2)(A) and (f)(1)(A) refers to the seizure or on-site copying of the media or information, and not to any later off-site copying or review.

(C) Warrant for a Tracking Device. A tracking-device warrant must identify the person or property to be tracked, designate the magistrate judge to whom it must be returned, and specify a reasonable length of time that the device may be used. The time must not exceed 45 days from the date the warrant was issued. The court may, for good cause, grant one or more extensions for a reasonable period not to exceed 45 days each. The warrant must command the officer to:

(i) complete any installation authorized by the warrant within a specified time no longer than 10 days;

(ii) perform any installation authorized by the warrant during the daytime, unless the judge for good cause expressly authorizes installation at another time; and

(iii) return the warrant to the judge designated in the warrant.

(f) Executing and Returning the Warrant.

(1) Warrant to Search for and Seize a Person or Property.

(A) Noting the Time. The officer executing the warrant must enter on it the exact date and time it was executed.

(B) Inventory. An officer present during the execution of the warrant must prepare and verify an inventory of any property seized. The officer must do so in the presence of another officer and the person from whom, or from whose premises, the property was taken. If either one is not present, the officer must prepare and verify the inventory in the presence of at least one other credible person. In a case involving the seizure of electronic storage media or the seizure or copying of electronically stored information, the inventory may be limited to describing the physical storage media that were seized or copied. The officer may retain a copy of the electronically stored information that was seized or copied.

(C) Receipt. The officer executing the warrant must give a copy of the warrant and a receipt for the property taken to the person from whom, or from whose premises, the property was taken or leave a copy of the warrant and receipt at the place where the officer took the property. For a warrant to use remote access to search electronic storage media and seize or copy electronically stored information, the officer must make reasonable efforts to serve a copy of the warrant and receipt on the person whose property was searched or who possessed the information that was seized or copied. Service may be accomplished by any means, including electronic means, reasonably calculated to reach that person.

(D) Return. The officer executing the warrant must promptly return it—together with a copy of the inventory—to the magistrate judge designated on the warrant. The officer may do so by reliable electronic means. The judge must, on request, give a copy of the inventory to the person from whom, or from whose premises, the property was taken and to the applicant for the warrant.

(2) Warrant for a Tracking Device.

(A) Noting the Time. The officer executing a tracking-device warrant must enter on it the exact date and time the device was installed and the period during which it was used.

(B) Return. Within 10 days after the use of the tracking device has ended, the officer executing the warrant must return it to the judge designated in the warrant. The officer may do so by reliable electronic means.

(C) Service. Within 10 days after the use of the tracking device has ended, the officer executing a tracking-device warrant must serve a copy of the warrant on the person who was tracked or whose property was tracked. Service may be accomplished by delivering a copy to the person who, or whose property, was tracked; or by leaving a copy at the person's residence or usual place of abode with an individual of suitable age and discretion who resides at that location and by mailing a copy to the person's last known address. Upon request of the government, the judge may delay notice as provided in Rule 41(f)(3).

(3) Delayed Notice. Upon the government's request, a magistrate judge—or if authorized by Rule 41(b), a judge of a state court of record—may delay any notice required by this rule if the delay is authorized by statute.

(g) Motion to Return Property. A person aggrieved by an unlawful search and seizure of property or by the deprivation of property may move for the property's return. The motion must be filed in the district where the property was seized. The court must receive evidence on any factual issue necessary to decide the motion. If it grants the motion, the court must return the property to the movant, but may impose reasonable conditions to protect access to the property and its use in later proceedings.

(h) Motion to Suppress. A defendant may move to suppress evidence in the court where the trial will occur, as Rule 12 provides.

(i) Forwarding Papers to the Clerk. The magistrate judge to whom the warrant is returned must attach to the warrant a copy of the return, of the inventory, and of all other related papers and must deliver them to the clerk in the district where the property was seized.

Notes

(As amended Dec. 27, 1948, eff. Oct. 20, 1949; Apr. 9, 1956, eff. July 8, 1956; Apr. 24, 1972, eff. Oct. 1, 1972; Mar. 18, 1974, eff. July 1, 1974; Apr. 26 and July 8, 1976, eff. Aug. 1, 1976; Pub. L. 95–78, §2(e), July 30, 1977, 91 Stat. 320, eff. Oct. 1, 1977; Apr. 30, 1979, eff. Aug. 1, 1979; Mar. 9, 1987, eff. Aug. 1, 1987; Apr. 25, 1989, eff. Dec. 1, 1989; May 1, 1990, eff. Dec. 1, 1990; Apr. 22, 1993, eff. Dec. 1, 1993; Pub. L. 107–56, title II, §219, Oct. 26, 2001, 115 Stat. 291; Apr. 29, 2002, eff. Dec. 1, 2002; Apr. 12, 2006, eff. Dec. 1, 2006; Apr. 23, 2008, eff. Dec. 1, 2008; Mar. 26, 2009, eff. Dec. 1, 2009; Apr. 26, 2011, eff. Dec. 1, 2011; Apr. 28, 2016, eff. Dec 1, 2016.)

Notes of Advisory Committee on Rules—1944

This rule is a codification of existing law and practice.

Note to Subdivision (a). This rule is a restatement of existing law, 18 U.S.C. [former] 611.

Note to Subdivision (b). This rule is a restatement of existing law, 18 U.S.C. [former] 612; Conyer v. United States, 80 F.2d 292 (C.C.A. 6th). This provision does not supersede or repeal special statutory provisions permitting the issuance of search warrants in specific circumstances. See Subdivision (g) and Note thereto, infra.

Note to Subdivision (c). This rule is a restatement of existing law, 18 U.S.C. [former] 613–616, 620; Dumbra v. United States, 268 U.S. 435.

Note to Subdivision (d). This rule is a restatement of existing law, 18 U.S.C. [former] 621–624.

Note to Subdivision (e). This rule is a restatement of existing law and practice, with the exception hereafter noted, 18 U.S.C. [former] 625, 626; Weeks v. United States, 232 U.S. 383; Silverthorne Lumber Co. v. United States, 251 U.S. 385; Agello v. United States, 269 U.S. 20; Gouled v. United States, 255 U.S. 298. While under existing law a motion to suppress evidence or to compel return of property obtained by an illegal search and seizure may be made either before a commissioner subject to review by the court on motion, or before the court, the rule provides that such motion may be made only before the court. The purpose is to prevent multiplication of proceedings and to bring the matter before the court in the first instance. While during the life of the Eighteenth Amendment when such motions were numerous it was a common practice in some districts for commissioners to hear such motions, the prevailing practice at the present time is to make such motions before the district court. This practice, which is deemed to be preferable, is embodied in the rule.

Note to Subdivision (f). This rule is a restatement of existing law, 18 U.S.C. [former] 627; Cf. Rule 5(c) (last sentence).

Note to Subdivision (g). While Rule 41 supersedes the general provisions of 18 U.S.C. 611 –626 [now 18 U.S.C. 3105, 3109], relating to search warrants, it does not supersede, but preserves, all other statutory provisions permitting searches and seizures in specific situations. Among such statutes are the following:

U.S.C., Title 18:

Section 287 [former] (Search warrant for suspected counterfeiture)

U.S.C., Title 19:

Section 1595 (Customs duties; searches and seizures)

U.S.C., Title 26:

Section 3117 [now 5557] (Officers and agents authorized to investigate, issue search warrants, and prosecute for violations)

For statutes which incorporate by reference 18 U.S.C. [former] 98, and therefore are now controlled by this rule, see, e. g.:

U.S.C., Title 18:

Section 12 [former] (Subversive activities; undermining loyalty, discipline, or morale of armed forces; searches and seizures)

U.S.C., Title 26:

Section 3116 [now 7302] (Forfeitures and seizures)

Statutory provision for a warrant for detention of war materials seized under certain circumstances is found in 22 U.S.C. 402 [see 401] (Seizure of war materials intended for unlawful export.)

Other statutes providing for searches and seizures or entry without warrants are the following:

U.S.C., Title 19:

Section 482 (Search of vehicles and persons)

U.S.C., Title 25:

Section 246 [now 18 U.S.C. 3113 ] (Searches and seizures)

U.S.C., Title 26:

Section 3601 [now 7606] (Entry of premises for examination of taxable objects)

U.S.C., Title 29:

Section 211 (Investigations, inspections, and records)

U.S.C., Title 49:

Section 781 [now 80302] (Unlawful use of vessels, vehicles, and aircrafts; contraband article defined)

Section 782 [now 80303] (Seizure and forfeiture)

Section 784 [now 80306] (Application of related laws)

Notes of Advisory Committee on Rules—1948 Amendment

Subdivision (b)(3).—The amendment is to substitute proper reference to Title 18 in place of the repealed acts.

Subdivision (g).—To eliminate reference to sections of the Act of June 15, 1917, c. 30, which have been repealed by the Act of June 25, 1948, c. 645, which enacted Title 18.

Notes of Advisory Committee on Rules—1972 Amendment

Subdivision (a) is amended to provide that a search warrant may be issued only upon the request of a federal law enforcement officer or an attorney for the government. The phrase “federal law enforcement officer” is defined in subdivision (h) in a way which will allow the Attorney General to designate the category of officers who are authorized to make application for a search warrant. The phrase “attorney for the government” is defined in rule 54.

The title to subdivision (b) is changed to make it conform more accurately to the content of the subdivision. Subdivision (b) is also changed to modernize the language used to describe the property which may be seized with a lawfully issued search warrant and to take account of a recent Supreme Court decision ( Warden v. Haden, 387 U.S. 294 (1967)) and recent congressional action ( 18 U.S.C. §3103a) which authorize the issuance of a search warrant to search for items of solely evidential value. 18 U.S.C. §3103a provides that “a warrant may be issued to search for and seize any property that constitutes evidence of a criminal offense. . . .”

Recent state legislation authorizes the issuance of a search warrant for evidence of crime. See, e.g., Cal. Penal Code §1524 (4) (West Supp. 1968); Ill.Rev.Stat. ch. 38, §108–3 (1965); LSA C.Cr.P. art. 161 (1967); N.Y. CPL §690.10(4) (McKinney, 1971); Ore.Rev.Stat. §141.010 (1969); Wis.Stat. §968.13(2) (1969).

The general weight of recent text and law review comment has been in favor of allowing a search for evidence. 8 Wigmore, Evidence §2184a. (McNaughton rev. 1961); Kamisar. The Wiretapping-Eavesdropping Problem: A professor's View, 44 Minn.L.Rev. 891 (1960); Kaplan, Search and Seizure: A No-Man's Land in the Criminal Law, 49 Calif.L.Rev. 474 (1961); Comments: 66 Colum.L.Rev. 355 (1966), 45 N.C.L.Rev. 512 (1967), 20 U.Chi.L.Rev. 319 (1953).

There is no intention to limit the protection of the fifth amendment against compulsory self-incrimination, so items which are solely “testimonial” or “communicative” in nature might well be inadmissible on those grounds. Schmerber v. California, 384 U.S. 757 (1966). The court referred to the possible fifth amendment limitation in Warden v. Hayden, supra:

This case thus does not require that we consider whether there are items of evidential value whose very nature precludes them from being the object of a reasonable search and seizure. [387 U.S. at 303].

See ALI Model Code of Pre-Arraignment Procedure §551.03(2) and commentary at pp. 3–5 (April 30, 1971).

It seems preferable to allow the fifth amendment limitation to develop as cases arise rather than attempt to articulate the constitutional doctrine as part of the rule itself.

The amendment to subdivision (c) is intended to make clear that a search warrant may properly be based upon a finding of probable cause based upon hearsay. That a search warrant may properly be issued on the basis of hearsay is current law. See, e.g., Jones v. United States, 362 U.S. 257 (1960); Spinelli v. United States, 393 U.S. 410 (1969). See also State v. Beal, 40 Wis.2d 607, 162 N.W.2d 640 (1968), reversing prior Wisconsin cases which held that a search warrant could not properly issue on the basis of hearsay evidence.

The provision in subdivision (c) that the magistrate may examine the affiant or witnesses under oath is intended to assure him an opportunity to make a careful decision as to whether there is probable cause. It seems desirable to do this as an incident to the issuance of the warrant rather than having the issue raised only later on a motion to suppress the evidence. See L. Tiffany, D. McIntyre, and D. Rotenberg, Detection of Crime 118 (1967). If testimony is taken it must be recorded, transcribed, and made part of the affidavit or affidavits. This is to insure an adequate basis for determining the sufficiency of the evidentiary grounds for the issuance of the search warrant if that question should later arise.

The requirement that the warrant itself state the grounds for its issuance and the names of any affiants, is eliminated as unnecessary paper work. There is no comparable requirement for an arrest warrant in rule 4. A person who wishes to challenge the validity of a search warrant has access to the affidavits upon which the warrant was issued.

The former requirement that the warrant require that the search be conducted “forthwith” is changed to read “within a specified period of time not to exceed 10 days.” The former rule contained an inconsistency between subdivision (c) requiring that the search be conducted “forthwith” and subdivision (d) requiring execution “within 10 days after its date.” The amendment resolves this ambiguity and confers discretion upon the issuing magistrate to specify the time within which the search may be conducted to meet the needs of the particular case.

The rule is also changed to allow the magistrate to authorize a search at a time other than “daytime,” where there is “reasonable cause shown” for doing so. To make clear what “daytime” means, the term is defined in subdivision (h).

Subdivision (d) is amended to conform its language to the Federal Magistrates Act. The language “The warrant may be executed and returned only within 10 days after its date” is omitted as unnecessary. The matter is now covered adequately in proposed subdivision (c) which gives the issuing officer authority to fix the time within which the warrant is to be executed.

The amendment to subdivision (e) and the addition of subdivision (f) are intended to require the motion to suppress evidence to be made in the trial court rather than in the district in which the evidence was seized as now allowed by the rule. In DiBella v. United States, 369 U.S. 121 (1962), the court, in effect, discouraged motions to suppress in the district in which the property was seized:

There is a decision in the Second Circuit, United States v. Klapholz, 230 F.2d 494 (1956), allowing the Government an appeal from an order granting a post-indictment motion to suppress, apparently for the single reason that the motion was filed in the district of seizure rather than of trial; but the case was soon thereafter taken by a District Court to have counseled declining jurisdiction of such motions for reasons persuasive against allowing the appeal: “This course will avoid a needless duplication of effort by two courts and provide a more expeditious resolution of the controversy besides avoiding the risk of determining prematurely and inadequately the admissibility of evidence at the trial. . . . A piecemeal adjudication such as that which would necessarily follow from a disposition of the motion here might conceivably result in prejudice either to the Government or the defendants, or both.” United States v. Lester, 21 F.R.D. 30, 31 (D.C.S.D.N.Y. 1957). Rule 41(e), of course, specifically provides for making of the motion in the district of seizure On a summary hearing, however, the ruling there is likely always to be tentative. We think it accords most satisfactorily with sound administration of the Rules to treat such rulings as interlocutory. [369 U.S. at 132–133.]

As amended, subdivision (e) provides for a return of the property if (1) the person is entitled to lawful possession and (2) the seizure was illegal. This means that the judge in the district of seizure does not have to decide the legality of the seizure in cases involving contraband which, even if seized illegally, is not to be returned.

The five grounds for returning the property, presently listed in the rule, are dropped for two reasons—(1) substantive grounds for objecting to illegally obtained evidence ( e.g., Miranda) are not ordinarily codified in the rules and (2) the categories are not entirely accurate. See United States v. Howard, 138 F.Supp. 376, 380 (D.Md. 1956).

A sentence is added to subdivision (e) to provide that a motion for return of property, made in the district of trial, shall be treated also as a motion to suppress under rule 12. This change is intended to further the objective of rule 12 which is to have all pretrial motions disposed of in a single court appearance rather than to have a series of pretrial motions made on different dates, causing undue delay in administration.

Subdivision (f) is new and reflects the position that it is best to have the motion to suppress made in the court of the district of trial rather than in the court of the district in which the seizure occurred. The motion to suppress in the district of trial should be made in accordance with the provisions of rule 12.

Subdivision (g) is changed to conform to subdivision (c) which requires the return to be made before a federal judicial officer even though the search warrant may have been issued by a nonfederal magistrate.

Subdivision (h) is former rule 41(g) with the addition of a definition of the term “daytime” and the phrase “federal law enforcement officer.”

Notes of Advisory Committee on Rules—1974 Amendment

The amendment restores the words “court of record” which were inadvertently omitted from the amended text of the subdivision which was transmitted by the Judicial Conference to the Supreme Court and prescribed by the Court on April 24, 1972.

Notes of Advisory Committee on Rules—1977 Amendment

Rule 41(c)(2) is added to establish a procedure for the issuance of a search warrant when it is not reasonably practicable for the person obtaining the warrant to present a written affidavit to a magistrate or a state judge as required by subdivision (c)(1). At least two states have adopted a similar procedure, Ariz.Rev.Stat. Ann. §§13–1444(c)–1445(c) (Supp. 1973); Cal.Pen. Code §§1526(b), 1528(b) (West Supp. 1974), and comparable amendments are under consideration in other jurisdictions. See Israel, Legislative Regulation of Searches and Seizures: The Michigan Proposals, 73 Mich.L.Rev. 221, 258–63 (1975); Nakell, Proposed Revisions of North Carolina's Search and Seizure Law, 52 N.Car.L.Rev. 277, 306–11 (1973). It has been strongly recommended that “every State enact legislation that provides for the issuance of search warrants pursuant to telephoned petitions and affidavits from police officers.” National Advisory Commission on Criminal Justice Standards and Goals, Report on Police 95 (1973). Experience with the procedure has been most favorable. Miller, Telephonic Search Warrants: The San Diego Experience, 9 The Prosecutor 385 (1974).

The trend of recent Supreme Court decisions has been to give greater priority to the use of a search warrant as the proper way of making a lawful search:

It is a cardinal rule that, in seizing goods and articles, law enforcement agents must secure and use search warrants whenever reasonably practicable. . . . This rule rests upon the desirability of having magistrates rather than police officers determine when searches and seizures are permissible and what limitations should be placed upon such activities. Trupiano v. United States, 334 U.S. 699, 705 (1948), quoted with approval in Chimel v. California, 395 U.S. 752, 758 (1969).

See also Coolidge v. New Hampshire, 403 U.S. 443 (1971); Note, Chambers v. Maroney: New Dimensions in the Law of Search and Seizure, 46 Indiana L.J. 257, 262 (1971).

Use of search warrants can best be encouraged by making it administratively feasible to obtain a warrant when one is needed. One reason for the nonuse of the warrant has been the administrative difficulties involved in getting a warrant, particularly at times of the day when a judicial officer is ordinarily unavailable. See L. Tiffany, D. McIntyre, and D. Rotenberg, Detection of Crime 105–116 (1967); LaFave, Improving Police Performance Through the Exclusionary Rule, 30 Mo.L.Rev. 391, 411 (1965). Federal law enforcement officers are not infrequently confronted with situations in which the circumstances are not sufficiently “exigent” to justify the serious step of conducting a warrantless search of private premises, but yet there exists a significant possibility that critical evidence would be lost in the time it would take to obtain a search warrant by traditional means. See, e.g., United States v. Johnson,—F.2d—(D.C. Cir. June 16, 1975).

Subdivision (c)(2) provides that a warrant may be issued on the basis of an oral statement of a person not in the physical presence of the federal magistrate. Telephone, radio, or other electronic methods of communication are contemplated. For the warrant to properly issue, four requirements must be met:

(1) The applicant—a federal law enforcement officer or an attorney for the government, as required by subdivision (a)—must persuade the magistrate that the circumstances of time and place make it reasonable to request the magistrate to issue a warrant on the basis of oral testimony. This restriction on the issuance of a warrant recognizes the inherent limitations of an oral warrant procedure, the lack of demeanor evidence, and the lack of a written record for the reviewing magistrate to consider before issuing the warrant. See Comment, Oral Search Warrants: A New Standard of Warrant Availability, 21 U.C.L.A. Law Review 691, 701 (1974). Circumstances making it reasonable to obtain a warrant on oral testimony exist if delay in obtaining the warrant might result in the destruction or disappearance of the property [see Chimel v. California, 395 U.S. 752, 773–774 (1969) (White, dissenting); Landynski, The Supreme Court's Search for Fourth Amendment Standards: The Warrantless Search, 45 Conn.B.J. 2, 25 (1971)]; or because of the time when the warrant is sought, the distance from the magistrate of the person seeking the warrant, or both.

(2) The applicant must orally state facts sufficient to satisfy the probable cause requirement for the issuance of the search warrant. (See subdivision (c)(1).) This information may come from either the applicant federal law enforcement officer or the attorney for the government or a witness willing to make an oral statement. The oral testimony must be recorded at this time so that the transcribed affidavit will provide an adequate basis for determining the sufficiency of the evidence if that issue should later arise. See Kipperman. Inaccurate Search Warrant Affidavits as a Ground for Suppressing Evidence, 84 Harv.L.Rev. 825 (1971). It is contemplated that the recording of the oral testimony will be made by a court reporter, by a mechanical recording device, or by a verbatim contemporaneous writing by the magistrate. Recording a telephone conversation is no longer difficult with many easily operated recorders available. See 86:2 L.A. Daily Journal 1 (1973); Miller, Telephonic Search Warrants: The San Diego Experience, 9 The Prosecutor 385, 386 (1974).

(3) The applicant must read the contents of the warrant to the federal magistrate in order to enable the magistrate to know whether the requirements of certainty in the warrant are satisfied. The magistrate may direct that changes be made in the warrant. If the magistrate approves the warrant as requested or as modified by the magistrate, he then issues the warrant by directing the applicant to sign the magistrate's name to the duplicate original warrant. The magistrate then causes to be made a written copy of the approved warrant. This constitutes the original warrant. The magistrate enters the time of issuance of the duplicate original warrant on the face of the original warrant.

(4) Return of the duplicate original warrant and the original warrant must conform to subdivision (d). The transcript of the sworn oral testimony setting forth the grounds for issuance of the warrant must be signed by affiant in the presence of the magistrate and filed with the court.

Because federal magistrates are likely to be accessible through the use of the telephone or other electronic devices, it is unnecessary to authorize state judges to issue warrants under subdivision (c)(2).

Although the procedure set out in subdivision (c)(2) contemplates resort to technology which did not exist when the Fourth Amendment was adopted, the Advisory Committee is of the view that the procedure complies with all of the requirements of the Amendment. The telephonic search warrant process has been upheld as constitutional by the courts, e.g., People v. Peck, 38 Cal.App.3d 993, 113 Cal.Rptr. 806 (1974), and has consistently been so viewed by commentators. See Israel, Legislative Regulation of Searches and Seizures: The Michigan Proposals, 73 Mich.L.Rev. 221, 260 (1975); Nakell, Proposed Revisions of North Carolina's Search and Seizure Law, 52 N.Car.L.Rev. 277, 310 (1973); Comment, Oral Search Warrants: A New Standard of Warrant Availability, 21 U.C.L.A.Rev. 691, 697 (1973).

Reliance upon oral testimony as a basis for issuing a search warrant is permissible under the Fourth Amendment. Campbell v. Minnesota, 487 F.2d 1 (8th Cir. 1973); United States ex rel. Gaugler v. Brierley, 477 F.2d 516 (3d Cir. 1973); Tabasko v. Barton, 472 F.2d 871 (6th Cir. 1972); Frazier v. Roberts, 441 F.2d 1224 (8th Cir. 1971). Thus, the procedure authorized under subdivision (c)(2) is not objectionable on the ground that the oral statement is not transcribed in advance of the issuance of the warrant. People v. Peck, 38 Cal.App.3d 993, 113 Cal.Rptr. 806 (1974). Although it has been questioned whether oral testimony will suffice under the Fourth Amendment if some kind of contemporaneous record is not made of that testimony, see dissent from denial of certiorari in Christofferson v. Washington, 393 U.S. 1090 (1969), this problem is not present under the procedure set out in subdivision (c)(2).

The Fourth Amendment requires that warrants issue “upon probable cause, supported by Oath or affirmation.” The significance of the oath requirement is “that someone must take the responsibility for the facts alleged, giving rise to the probable cause for the issuance of a warrant.” United States ex rel. Pugh v. Pate, 401 F.2d 6 (7th Cir. 1968); See also Frazier v. Roberts, 441 F.2d 1224 (8th Cir. 1971). This is accomplished under the procedure required by subdivision (c)(2); the need for an oath under the Fourth Amendment does not “require a face to face confrontation between the magistrate and the affiant.” People v. Chavaz, 27 Cal.App.3d 883, 104 Cal.Rptr. 247 (1972). See also People v. Aguirre, 26 Cal.App.3d 7, 103 Cal.Rptr. 153 (1972), noting it is unnecessary that “oral statements [be] taken in the physical presence of the magistrate.”

The availability of the procedure authorized by subdivision (c)(2) will minimize the necessity of federal law enforcement officers engaging in other practices which, at least on occasion, might threaten to a greater extent those values protected by the Fourth Amendment. Although it is permissible for an officer in the field to relay his information by radio or telephone to another officer who has more ready access to a magistrate and who will thus act as the affiant, Lopez v. United States, 370 F.2d 8 (5th Cir. 1966); State v. Banks, 250 N.C. 728, 110 S.E.2d 322 (1959), that procedure is less desirable than that permitted under subdivision (c)(2), for it deprives “the magistrate of the opportunity to examine the officer at the scene, who is in a much better position to answer questions relating to probable cause and the requisite scope of the search.” Israel, Legislative Regulation of Searches and Seizures: The Michigan Proposals, 73 Mich.L.Rev. 221, 260 (1975). Or, in the absence of the subdivision (c)(2) procedure, officers might take “protective custody” of the premises and occupants for a significant period of time while a search warrant was sought by traditional means. The extent to which the “protective custody” procedure may be employed consistent with the Fourth Amendment is uncertain at best; see Griswold, Criminal Procedure, 1969—Is It a Means or an End?, 29 Md.L.Rev. 307, 317 (1969). The unavailability of the subdivision (c)(2) procedure also makes more tempting an immediate resort to a warrantless search in the hope that the circumstances will later be found to have been sufficiently “exigent” to justify such a step. See Miller, Telephonic Search Warrants: The San Diego Experience, 9 The Prosecutor 385, 386 (1974), noting a dramatic increase in police utilization of the warrant process following enactment of a telephonic warrant statute.

Notes of Committee on the Judiciary, Senate Report No. 95–354; 1977 Amendments Proposed by the Supreme Court

The committee agrees with the Supreme Court that it is desirable to encourage Federal law enforcement officers to seek search warrants in situations where they might otherwise conduct warrantless searches by providing for a telephone search warrant procedure with the basic characteristics suggested in the proposed Rule 41(c)(2). As the Supreme Court has observed, “It is a cardinal rule that, in seizing goods and articles, law enforcement agents must secure and use search warrants whenever reasonably practicable.” After consideration of the Supreme Court version and a proposal set forth in H.R. 7888, the committee decided to use the language of the House bill as the vehicle, with certain modifications.

A new provision, as indicated in subparagraph (c)(2)(A), is added to establish a procedure for the issuance of a search warrant where the circumstances make it reasonable to dispense with a written affidavit to be presented in person to a magistrate. At least two States have adopted a similar procedure—Arizona and California—and comparable amendments are under consideration in other jurisdictions. Such a procedure has been strongly recommended by the National Advisory Commission on Criminal Justice Standards and Goals and State experience with the procedure has been favorable. The telephone search warrant process has been upheld as constitutional by the courts and has consistently been so viewed by commentators.

In recommending a telephone search warrant procedure, the Advisory Committee note on the Supreme Court proposal points out that the preferred method of conducting a search is with a search warrant. The note indicates that the rationale for the proposed change is to encourage Federal law enforcement officers to seek search warrants in situations when they might otherwise conduct warrantless searches. “Federal law enforcement officers are not infrequently confronted with situations in which the circumstances are not sufficiently ‘exigent’ to justify the serious step of conducting a warrantless search of private premises, but yet there exists a significant possibility that critical evidence would be lost in the time it would take to obtain a search warrant by traditional means.”

Subparagraph (c)(2)(B) provides that the person requesting the warrant shall prepare a “duplicate original warrant” which will be read and recorded verbatim by the magistrate on an “original warrant.” The magistrate may direct that the warrant be modified.

Subparagraph (c)(2)(C) provides that, if the magistrate is satisfied that the circumstances are such as to make it reasonable to dispense with a written affidavit and that grounds for the application exist or there is probable cause to believe that they exist, he shall order the issuance of the warrant by directing the requestor to sign the magistrate's name on the duplicate original warrant. The magistrate is required to sign the original warrant and enter the time of issuance thereon. The finding of probable cause may be based on the same type of evidence appropriate for a warrant upon affidavit.

Subparagraph (c)(2)(D) requires the magistrate to place the requestor and any witness under oath and, if a voice recording device is available, to record the proceeding. If a voice recording is not available, the proceeding must be recorded verbatim stenographically or in longhand. Verified copies must be filed with the court as specified.

Subparagraph (c)(2)(E) provides that the contents of the warrant upon oral testimony shall be the same as the contents of a warrant upon affidavit.

Subparagraph (c)(2)(F) provides that the person who executes the warrant shall enter the exact time of execution on the face of the duplicate original warrant. Unlike H.R. 7888, this subparagraph does not require the person who executes the warrant to have physical possession of the duplicate original warrant at the time of the execution of the warrant. The committee believes this would make an unwise and unnecessary distinction between execution of regular warrants issued on written affidavits and warrants issued by telephone that would limit the flexibility and utility of this procedure for no useful purpose.

Finally, subparagraph (c)(2)(G) makes it clear that, absent a finding of bad faith by the government, the magistrate's judgment that the circumstances made it reasonable to dispense with a written affidavit—a decision that does not go to the core question of whether there was probable cause to issue a warrant—is not a ground for granting a motion to suppress evidence.

Congressional Modification of Proposed 1977 Amendment

Section 2(e) of Pub. L. 95–78 provided in part that the amendment by the Supreme Court [in its order of Apr. 26, 1976] to subdivision (c) of rule 41 of the Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure [subd. (c) of this rule] is approved in a modified form.

Notes of Advisory Committee on Rules—1979 Amendment

This amendment to Rule 41 is intended to make it possible for a search warrant to issue to search for a person under two circumstances: (i) when there is probable cause to arrest that person; or (ii) when that person is being unlawfully restrained. There may be instances in which a search warrant would be required to conduct a search in either of these circumstances. Even when a search warrant would not be required to enter a place to search for a person, a procedure for obtaining a warrant should be available so that law enforcement officers will be encouraged to resort to the preferred alternative of acquiring “an objective predetermination of probable cause” Katz v. United States, 389 U.S. 347, 88 S.Ct. 507, 19 L.Ed.2d 576 (1967), in this instance, that the person sought is at the place to be searched.

That part of the amendment which authorizes issuance of a search warrant to search for a person unlawfully restrained is consistent with ALI Model Code of Pre-Arraignment Procedure §SS 210.3(1)(d) (Proposed Official Draft, 1975), which specifies that a search warrant may issue to search for “an individual * * * who is unlawfully held in confinement or other restraint.” As noted in the Commentary thereto, id. at p. 507:

Ordinarily such persons will be held against their will and in that case the persons are, of course, not subject to “seizure.” But they are, in a sense, “evidence” of crime, and the use of search warrants for these purposes presents no conceptual difficulties.

Some state search warrant provisions also provide for issuance of a warrant in these circumstances. See, e. g., Ill.Rev.Stat. ch. 38, §108–3 (“Any person who has been kidnapped in violation of the laws of this State, or who has been kidnapped in another jurisdiction and is now concealed within this State”).

It may be that very often exigent circumstances, especially the need to act very promptly to protect the life or well-being of the kidnap victim, would justify an immediate warrantless search for the person restrained. But this is not inevitably the case. Moreover, as noted above there should be available a process whereby law enforcement agents may acquire in advance a judicial determination that they have cause to intrude upon the privacy of those at the place where the victim is thought to be located.

That part of the amendment which authorizes issuance of a search warrant to search for a person to be arrested is also consistent with ALI Model Code of Pre-Arraignment Procedure §SS 210.3(1)(d) (Proposed Official Draft, 1975), which states that a search warrant may issue to search for “an individual for whose arrest there is reasonable cause.” As noted in the Commentary thereto, id. at p. 507, it is desirable that there be “explicit statutory authority for such searches.” Some state search warrant provisions also expressly provide for the issuance of a search warrant to search for a person to be arrested. See, e. g., Del.Code Ann. tit. 11, §2305 (“Persons for whom a warrant of arrest has been issued”). This part of the amendment to Rule 41 covers a defendant or witness for whom an arrest warrant has theretofore issued, or a defendant for whom grounds to arrest exist even though no arrest warrant has theretofore issued. It also covers the arrest of a deportable alien under 8 U.S.C. §1252, whose presence at a certain place might be important evidence of criminal conduct by another person, such as the harboring of undocumented aliens under 8 U.S.C. §1324(a)(3).

In United States v. Watson, 423 U.S. 411, 96 S.Ct. 820, 46 L.Ed.2d 598 (1976), the Court once again alluded to “the still unsettled question” of whether, absent exigent circumstances, officers acting without a warrant may enter private premises to make an arrest. Some courts have indicated that probable cause alone ordinarily is sufficient to support an arrest entry. United States v. Fernandez, 480 F.2d 726 (2d Cir. 1973); United States ex rel. Wright v. Woods, 432 F.2d 1143 (7th Cir. 1970). There exists some authority, however, that except under exigent circumstances a warrant is required to enter the defendant's own premises, United States v. Calhoun, 542 F.2d 1094 (9th Cir. 1976); United States v. Lindsay, 506 F.2d 166 (D.C.Cir. 1974); Dorman v. United States, 435 F.2d 385 (D.C.Cir. 1970), or, at least, to enter the premises of a third party, Virgin Islands v. Gereau, 502 F.2d 914 (3d Cir. 1974); Fisher v. Volz, 496 F.2d 333 (3d Cir. 1974); Huotari v. Vanderport, 380 F.Supp. 645 (D.Minn. 1974).

It is also unclear, assuming a need for a warrant, what kind of warrant is required, although it is sometimes assumed that an arrest warrant will suffice, e. g., United States v. Calhoun, supra; United States v. James, 528 F.2d 999 (5th Cir. 1976). There is a growing body of authority, however, that what is needed to justify entry of the premises of a third party to arrest is a search warrant, e. g., Virgin Islands v. Gereau, supra; Fisher v. Volz, supra. The theory is that if the privacy of this third party is to be protected adequately, what is needed is a probable cause determination by a magistrate that the wanted person is presently within that party's premises. “A warrant for the arrest of a suspect may indicate that the police officer has probable cause to believe the suspect committed the crime; it affords no basis to believe the suspect is in some stranger's home.” Fisher v. Volz, supra.

It has sometimes been contended that a search warrant should be required for a nonexigent entry to arrest even when the premises to be entered are those of the person to be arrested. Rotenberg & Tanzer, Searching for the Person to be Seized, 35 Ohio St.L.J. 56, 69 (1974). Case authority in support is lacking, and it may be that the protections of a search warrant are less important in such a situation because ordinarily “rudimentary police procedure dictates that a suspect's residence be eliminated as a possible hiding place before a search is conducted elsewhere.” People v. Sprovieri, 95 Ill.App.2d 10, 238 N.E.2d 115 (1968).

Despite these uncertainties, the fact remains that in some circuits under some circumstances a search warrant is required to enter private premises to arrest. Moreover, the law on this subject is in a sufficient state of uncertainty that this position may be taken by other courts. It is thus important that Rule 41 clearly express that a search warrant for this purpose may issue. And even if future decisions head the other direction, the need for the amendment would still exist. It is clear that law enforcement officers “may not constitutionally enter the home of a private individual to search for another person, though he be named in a valid arrest warrant in their possession, absent probable cause to believe that the named suspect is present within at the time.” Fisher v. Volz, supra. The cautious officer is entitled to a procedure whereby he may have this probable cause determination made by a neutral and detached magistrate in advance of the entry.

Notes of Advisory Committee on Rules—1987 Amendment

The amendments are technical. No substantive change is intended.

Notes of Advisory Committee on Rules—1989 Amendment

The amendment to Rule 41(e) conforms the rule to the practice in most districts and eliminates language that is somewhat confusing. The Supreme Court has upheld warrants for the search and seizure of property in the possession of persons who are not suspected of criminal activity. See, e.g., Zurcher v. Stanford Daily, 436 U.S. 547 (1978). Before the amendment, Rule 41(e) permitted such persons to seek return of their property if they were aggrieved by an unlawful search and seizure. But, the rule failed to address the harm that may result from the interference with the lawful use of property by persons who are not suspected of wrongdoing. Courts have recognized that once the government no longer has a need to use evidence, it should be returned. See, e.g., United States v. Wilson, 540 F.2d 1100 (D.C. Cir. 1976). Prior to the amendment, Rule 41(e) did not explicitly recognize a right of a property owner to obtain return of lawfully seized property even though the government might be able to protect its legitimate law enforcement interests in the property despite its return—e.g., by copying documents or by conditioning the return on government access to the property at a future time. As amended, Rule 41(e) provides that an aggrieved person may seek return of property that has been unlawfully seized, and a person whose property has been lawfully seized may seek return of property when aggrieved by the government's continued possession of it.

No standard is set forth in the rule to govern the determination of whether property should be returned to a person aggrieved either by an unlawful seizure or by deprivation of the property. The fourth amendment protects people from unreasonable seizures as well as unreasonable searches, United States v. Place, 462 U.S. 696, 701 (1983), and reasonableness under all of the circumstances must be the test when a person seeks to obtain the return of property. If the United States has a need for the property in an investigation or prosecution, its retention of the property generally is reasonable. But, if the United States’ legitimate interests can be satisfied even if the property is returned, continued retention of the property would become unreasonable.

The amendment deletes language dating from 1944 stating that evidence shall not be admissible at a hearing or at a trial if the court grants the motion to return property under Rule 41(e). This language has not kept pace with the development of exclusionary rule doctrine and is currently only confusing. The Supreme Court has now held that evidence seized in violation of the fourth amendment, but in good faith pursuant to a warrant, may be used even against a person aggrieved by the constitutional violation. United States v. Leon, 468 U.S. 897 (1984). The Court has also held that illegally seized evidence may be admissible against persons who are not personally aggrieved by an illegal search or seizure. Rakas v. Illinois, 439 U.S. 128 (1978). Property that is inadmissible for one purpose (e.g., as part of the government's case-in-chief) may be admissible for another purpose (e.g., impeachment, United States v. Havens, 446 U.S. 620 (1980)). Federal courts have relied upon these decisions and permitted the government to retain and to use evidence as permitted by the fourth amendment.

Rule 41(e) is not intended to deny the United States the use of evidence permitted by the fourth amendment and federal statutes, even if the evidence might have been unlawfully seized. See, e.g., United States v. Calandra, 414 U.S. 338, 349 n.6 (1978) (“Rule 41(e) does not constitute a statutory expansion of the exclusionary rule.”); United States v. Roberts, 852 F.2d 671 (2nd Cir. 1988) (exceptions to exclusionary rule applicable to Rule 41(e)). Thus, the exclusionary provision is deleted, and the scope of the exclusionary rule is reserved for judicial decisions.

In opting for a reasonableness approach and in deleting the exclusionary language, the Committee rejects the analysis of Sovereign News Co. v. United States, 690 F.2d 569 (6th Cir. 1982), cert. denied, 464 U.S. 814 (1983), which held that the United States must return photocopies of lawfully seized business records unless it could demonstrate that the records were “necessary for a specific investigation.” As long as the government has a law enforcement purpose in copying records, there is no reason why it should be saddled with a heavy burden of justifying the copying. Although some cases have held that the government must return copies of records where the originals were illegally seized—See, e.g., United States v. Wallace & Tiernan Co., 336 U.S. 793, 801 (1948); Goodman v. United States, 369 F.2d 166 (9th Cir. 1966)—these holdings are questionable in situations in which the government is permitted under Supreme Court decisions to use illegally seized evidence, and their reasoning does not apply to legally seized evidence.

As amended, Rule 41(e) avoids an all or nothing approach whereby the government must either return records and make no copies or keep originals notwithstanding the hardship to their owner. The amended rule recognizes that reasonable accommodations might protect both the law enforcement interests of the United States and the property rights of property owners and holders. In many instances documents and records that are relevant to ongoing or contemplated investigations and prosecutions may be returned to their owner as long as the government preserves a copy for future use. In some circumstances, however, equitable considerations might justify an order requiring the government to return or destroy all copies of records that it has seized. See, e.g., Paton v. LaPrade, 524 F.2d 862, 867–69 (3rd Cir. 1975). The amended rule contemplates judicial action that will respect both possessory and law enforcement interests.

The word “judge” is changed to “court” in the second sentence of subdivision (e) to clarify that a magistrate may receive evidence in the course of making a finding or a proposed finding for consideration by the district judge.

Notes of Advisory Committee on Rules—1990 Amendment

Rule 41(a). The amendment to Rule 41(a) serves several purposes. First, it furthers the constitutional preference for warrants by providing a mechanism whereby a warrant may be issued in a district for a person or property that is moving into or through a district or might move outside the district while the warrant is sought or executed. Second, it clarifies the authority of federal magistrates to issue search warrants for property that is relevant to criminal investigation being conducted in a district and, although located outside the United States, that is in a place where the United States may lawfully conduct a search.

The amendment is not intended to expand the class of persons authorized to request a warrant and the language “upon request of a federal law enforcement officer,” modifies all warrants covered by Rule 41. The amendment is intended to make clear that judges of state courts of record within a federal district may issue search warrants for persons or property located within that district. The amendment does not prescribe the circumstances in which a warrant is required and is not intended to change the law concerning warrant requirements. Rather the rule provides a mechanism for the issuance of a warrant when one is required, or when a law enforcement officer desires to seek a warrant even though warrantless activity is permissible.

Rule 41(a)(1) permits anticipatory warrants by omitting the words “is located,” which in the past required that in all instances the object of the search had to be located within the district at the time the warrant was issued. Now a search for property or a person within the district, or expected to be within the district, is valid if it otherwise complies with the rule.

Rule 41(a)(2) authorizes execution of search warrants in another district under limited circumstances. Because these searches are unusual, the rule limits to federal magistrates the authority to issue such warrants. The rule permits a federal magistrate to issue a search warrant for property within the district which is moving or may move outside the district. The amendment recognizes that there are inevitable delays between the application for a warrant and its authorization, on the one hand, and the execution of the warrant, on the other hand. The amendment also recognizes that when property is in motion, there may be good reason to delay execution until the property comes to rest. The amendment provides a practical tool for federal law enforcement officers that avoids the necessity of their either seeking several warrants in different districts for the same property or their relying on an exception to the warrant requirement for search of property or a person that has moved outside a district.

The amendment affords a useful warrant procedure to cover familiar fact patterns, like the one typified by United States v. Chadwick, 433 U.S. 1 (1976). In Chadwick, agents in San Diego observed suspicious activities involving a footlocker carried onto a train. When the train arrived in Boston, the agents made an arrest and conducted a warrantless search of the footlocker (which the Supreme Court held was invalid). Under the amended rule, agents who have probable cause in San Diego would be able to obtain a warrant for a search of the footlocker even though it is moving outside the district. Agents, who will not be sure exactly where the footlocker will be unloaded from the train, may execute the warrant when the journey ends. See also United States v. Karo, 468 U.S. 705 (1984) (rejecting argument that obtaining warrant to monitor beeper would not comply with requirement of particularity because its final destination may not be known); United States v. Knotts, 460 U.S. 276 (1983) (agents followed beeper across state lines). The Supreme Court's holding in Chadwick permits law enforcement officers to seize and hold an object like a footlocker while seeking a warrant. Although the amended rule would not disturb this holding, it provides a mechanism for agents to seek a probable cause determination and a warrant before interfering with the property and seizing it. It encourages reliance on warrants.

The amendment is not intended to abrogate the requirements of probable cause and prompt execution. At some point, a warrant issued in one district might become stale when executed in another district. But staleness can be a problem even when a warrant is executed in the district in which it was issued. See generally United States v. Harris, 403 U.S. 573, 579, 589 (1971). And at some point, an intervening event might make execution of a warrant unreasonable. Cf. Illinois v. Andreas, 463 U.S. 765, 772 (1983). Evaluations of the execution of a warrant must, in the nature of things, be made after the warrant is issued.

Nor does the amendment abrogate the requirement of particularity. Thus, it does not authorize searches of premises other than a particular place. As recognized by the Supreme Court in Karo, supra, although agents may not know exactly where moving property will come to rest, they can still describe with particularity the object to be searched.

The amendment would authorize the search of a particular object or container provided that law enforcement officials were otherwise in a lawful position to execute the search without making an impermissible intrusion. For example, it would authorize the search of luggage moving aboard a plane.

Rule 41(a)(3) [The Supreme Court did not adopt the addition of a subsection (3) to Rule 41(a)] provides for warrants to search property outside the United States. No provision for search warrants for persons is made lest the rule be read as a substitute for extradition proceedings. As with the provision for searches outside a district, supra, this provision is limited to search warrants issued by federal magistrates. The phrase “relevant to criminal investigation” is intended to encompass all of the types of property that are covered by Rule 41(b), which is unchanged by the amendment. That phrase also is intended to include those investigations which begin with the request for the search warrant.

Some searches and seizures by federal officers outside the territory of the United States may be governed by the fourth amendment. See generally Saltzburg, the Reach of the Bill of Rights Beyond the Terra Firma of the United States, 20 Va. J. Int'l L. 741 (1980). Prior to the amendment of the rule, it was unclear how federal officers might obtain warrants authorizing searches outside the district of the issuing magistrate. Military Rule of Evidence 315 provided guidance for searches of military personnel and property and nonmilitary property in a foreign country. But it had no civilian counterpart. See generally S. Saltzburg, L. Schinasi, & D. Schlueter, Military Rules of Evidence Manual 274–95 (2d ed. 1986).

Although the amendment rests on the assumption that the Constitution applies to some extraterritorial searches, cf United States v. Verdugo-Urquidez, 110 S. Ct. 1056, 494 U.S. 259 (1990) (fourth amendment inapplicable to extraterritorial searches of property owned by nonresident aliens), it does not address the question of when the Constitution requires a warrant. Nor does it address the issue of whether international agreements or treaties or the law of a foreign nation might be applicable. See United States v. Patterson, 812 F. 2d 486 (9th Cir. 1987). Instead, the amendment is intended to provide necessary clarification as to how a warrant may be obtained when law enforcement officials are required, or find it desirable, to do so.

Notes of Advisory Committee on Rules—1993 Amendment

The amendment to Rule 41(c)(2)(A) is intended to expand the authority of magistrates and judges in considering oral requests for search warrants. It also recognizes the value of, and the public's increased dependence on facsimile machines to transmit written information efficiently and accurately. As amended, the Rule should thus encourage law enforcement officers to seek a warrant, especially when it is necessary, or desirable, to supplement oral telephonic communications by written materials which may now be transmitted electronically as well. The magistrate issuing the warrant may require that the original affidavit be ultimately filed. The Committee considered, but rejected, amendments to the Rule which would have permitted other means of electronic transmission, such as the use of computer modems. In its view, facsimile transmissions provide some method of assuring the authenticity of the writing transmitted by the affiant.

The Committee considered amendments to Rule 41(c)(2)(B), Application, Rule 41(c)(2)(C), Issuance, and Rule 41(g), Return of Papers to Clerk, but determined that allowing use of facsimile transmissions in those instances would not save time and would present problems and questions concerning the need to preserve facsimile copies.

The Rule is also amended to conform to the Judicial Improvements Act of 1990 [P.L. 101–650, Title III, Section 321] which provides that each United States magistrate appointed under section 631 of title 28, United States Code, shall be known as a United States magistrate judge.

Committee Notes on Rules—2002 Amendment

The language of Rule 41 has been amended as part of the general restyling of the Criminal Rules to make them more easily understood and to make style and terminology consistent throughout the rules. These changes are intended to be stylistic only, except as otherwise noted below. Rule 41 has been completely reorganized to make it easier to read and apply its key provisions.

Rule 41(b)(3) is a new provision that incorporates a congressional amendment to Rule 41 as a part of the Uniting and Strengthening America by Providing Appropriate Tools Required to Intercept and Obstruct Terrorism (USA PATRIOT ACT) Act of 2001. The provision explicitly addresses the authority of a magistrate judge to issue a search warrant in an investigation of domestic or international terrorism. As long as the magistrate judge has authority in a district where activities related to terrorism may have occurred, the magistrate judge may issue a warrant for persons or property not only within the district, but outside the district as well.

Current Rule 41(c)(1), which refers to the fact that hearsay evidence may be used to support probable cause, has been deleted. That language was added to the rule in 1972, apparently to reflect emerging federal case law. See Advisory Committee Note to 1972 Amendments to Rule 41 (citing cases). Similar language was added to Rule 4 in 1974. In the intervening years, however, the case law has become perfectly clear on that proposition. Thus, the Committee believed that the reference to hearsay was no longer necessary. Furthermore, the limited reference to hearsay evidence was misleading to the extent that it might have suggested that other forms of inadmissible evidence could not be considered. For example, the rule made no reference to considering a defendant's prior criminal record, which clearly may be considered in deciding whether probable cause exists. See, e.g., Brinegar v. United States, 338 U.S. 160 (1949) (officer's knowledge of defendant's prior criminal activity). Rather than address that issue, or any other similar issues, the Committee believed that the matter was best addressed in Rule 1101(d)(3), Federal Rules of Evidence. That rule explicitly provides that the Federal Rules of Evidence do not apply to “preliminary examinations in criminal cases, . . . issuance of warrants for arrest, criminal summonses, and search warrants . . . .” The Advisory Committee Note accompanying that rule recognizes that: “The nature of the proceedings makes application of the formal rules of evidence inappropriate and impracticable.” The Committee did not intend to make any substantive changes in practice by deleting the reference to hearsay evidence.

Current Rule 41(d) provides that the officer taking the property under the warrant must provide a receipt for the property and complete an inventory. The revised rule indicates that the inventory may be completed by an officer present during the execution of the warrant, and not necessarily the officer actually executing the warrant.

Committee Notes on Rules—2006 Amendment

The amendments to Rule 41 address three issues: first, procedures for issuing tracking device warrants; second, a provision for delaying any notice required by the rule; and third, a provision permitting a magistrate judge to use reliable electronic means to issue warrants.

Subdivision (a). Amended Rule 41(a)(2) includes two new definitional provisions. The first, in Rule 41(a)(2)(D), addresses the definitions of “domestic terrorism” and “international terrorism,” terms used in Rule 41(b)(2). The second, in Rule 41(a)(2)(E), addresses the definition of “tracking device.”

Subdivision (b). Amended Rule 41(b)(4) is a new provision, designed to address the use of tracking devices. Such searches are recognized both by statute, see 18 U.S.C. §3117 (a) and by caselaw, see, e.g., United States v. Karo, 468 U.S. 705 (1984); United States v. Knotts, 460 U.S. 276 (1983). Warrants may be required to monitor tracking devices when they are used to monitor persons or property in areas where there is a reasonable expectation of privacy. See, e.g., United States v. Karo, supra (although no probable cause was required to install beeper, officers’ monitoring of its location in defendant's home raised Fourth Amendment concerns). Nonetheless, there is no procedural guidance in current Rule 41 for those judicial officers who are asked to issue tracking device warrants. As with traditional search warrants for persons or property, tracking device warrants may implicate law enforcement interests in multiple districts.

The amendment provides that a magistrate judge may issue a warrant, if he or she has the authority to do so in the district, to install and use a tracking device, as that term is defined in 18 U.S.C. §3117 (b). The magistrate judge's authority under this rule includes the authority to permit entry into an area where there is a reasonable expectation of privacy, installation of the tracking device, and maintenance and removal of the device. The Committee did not intend by this amendment to expand or contract the definition of what might constitute a tracking device. The amendment is based on the understanding that the device will assist officers only in tracking the movements of a person or property. The warrant may authorize officers to track the person or property within the district of issuance, or outside the district.

Because the authorized tracking may involve more than one district or state, the Committee believes that only federal judicial officers should be authorized to issue this type of warrant. Even where officers have no reason to believe initially that a person or property will move outside the district of issuance, issuing a warrant to authorize tracking both inside and outside the district avoids the necessity of obtaining multiple warrants if the property or person later crosses district or state lines.

The amendment reflects the view that if the officers intend to install or use the device in a constitutionally protected area, they must obtain judicial approval to do so. If, on the other hand, the officers intend to install and use the device without implicating any Fourth Amendment rights, there is no need to obtain the warrant. See, e.g., United States v. Knotts, supra, where the officers’ actions in installing and following tracking device did not amount to a search under the Fourth Amendment.

Subdivision (d). Amended Rule 41(d) includes new language on tracking devices. The tracking device statute, 18 U.S.C. §3117, does not specify the standard an applicant must meet to install a tracking device. The Supreme Court has acknowledged that the standard for installation of a tracking device is unresolved, and has reserved ruling on the issue until it is squarely presented by the facts of a case. See United States v. Karo, 468 U.S. 705, 718 n. 5 (1984). The amendment to Rule 41 does not resolve this issue or hold that such warrants may issue only on a showing of probable cause. Instead, it simply provides that if probable cause is shown, the magistrate judge must issue the warrant. And the warrant is only needed if the device is installed (for example, in the trunk of the defendant's car) or monitored (for example, while the car is in the defendant's garage) in an area in which the person being monitored has a reasonable expectation of privacy.

Subdivision (e). Rule 41(e) has been amended to permit magistrate judges to use reliable electronic means to issue warrants. Currently, the rule makes no provision for using such media. The amendment parallels similar changes to Rules 5 and 32.1(a)(5)(B)(i).

The amendment recognizes the significant improvements in technology. First, more counsel, courts, and magistrate judges now routinely use facsimile transmissions of documents. And many courts and magistrate judges are now equipped to receive filings by electronic means. Indeed, some courts encourage or require that certain documents be filed by electronic means. Second, the technology has advanced to the state where such filings may be sent from, and received at, locations outside the courthouse. Third, electronic media can now provide improved quality of transmission and security measures. In short, in a particular case, using facsimiles and electronic media to transmit a warrant can be both reliable and efficient use of judicial resources.

The term “electronic” is used to provide some flexibility to the rule and make allowance for further technological advances in transmitting data. Although facsimile transmissions are not specifically identified, the Committee envisions that facsimile transmissions would fall within the meaning of “electronic means.”

While the rule does not impose any special requirements on use of facsimile transmissions, neither does it presume that those transmissions are reliable. The rule treats all electronic transmissions in a similar fashion. Whatever the mode, the means used must be “reliable.” While the rule does not further define that term, the Committee envisions that a court or magistrate judge would make that determination as a local matter. In deciding whether a particular electronic means, or media, would be reliable, the court might consider first, the expected quality and clarity of the transmission. For example, is it possible to read the contents of the warrant in its entirety, as though it were the original or a clean photocopy? Second, the court may consider whether security measures are available to insure that the transmission is not compromised. In this regard, most courts are now equipped to require that certain documents contain a digital signature, or some other similar system for restricting access. Third, the court may consider whether there are reliable means of preserving the document for later use.

Amended Rule 41(e)(2)(B) is a new provision intended to address the contents of tracking device warrants. To avoid open-ended monitoring of tracking devices, the revised rule requires the magistrate judge to specify in the warrant the length of time for using the device. Although the initial time stated in the warrant may not exceed 45 days, extensions of time may be granted for good cause. The rule further specifies that any installation of a tracking device authorized by the warrant must be made within ten calendar days and, unless otherwise provided, that any installation occur during daylight hours.

Subdivision (f). Current Rule 41(f) has been completely revised to accommodate new provisions dealing with tracking device warrants. First, current Rule 41(f)(1) has been revised to address execution and delivery of warrants to search for and seize a person or property; no substantive change has been made to that provision. New Rule 41(f)(2) addresses execution and delivery of tracking device warrants. That provision generally tracks the structure of revised Rule 41(f)(1), with appropriate adjustments for the particular requirements of tracking device warrants. Under Rule 41(f)(2)(A) the officer must note on the warrant the time the device was installed and the period during which the device was used. And under new Rule 41(f)(2)(B), the officer must return the tracking device warrant to the magistrate judge designated in the warrant, within 10 calendar days after use of the device has ended.

Amended Rule 41(f)(2)(C) addresses the particular problems of serving a copy of a tracking device warrant on the person who has been tracked, or whose property has been tracked. In the case of other warrants, current Rule 41 envisions that the subjects of the search typically know that they have been searched, usually within a short period of time after the search has taken place. Tracking device warrants, on the other hand, are by their nature covert intrusions and can be successfully used only when the person being investigated is unaware that a tracking device is being used. The amendment requires that the officer must serve a copy of the tracking device warrant on the person within 10 calendar days after the tracking has ended. That service may be accomplished by either personally serving the person, or both by leaving a copy at the person's residence or usual abode and by sending a copy by mail. The Rule also provides, however, that the officer may (for good cause) obtain the court's permission to delay further service of the warrant. That might be appropriate, for example, where the owner of the tracked property is undetermined, or where the officer establishes that the investigation is ongoing and that disclosure of the warrant will compromise that investigation.

Use of a tracking device is to be distinguished from other continuous monitoring or observations that are governed by statutory provisions or caselaw. See Title III, Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act of 1968, as amended by Title I of the 1986 Electronic Communications Privacy Act [Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986], 18 U.S.C. §§2510 –2520 [sic]; United States v. Biasucci, 786 F.2d 504 (2d Cir. 1986) (video camera); United States v. Torres, 751 F.2d 875 (7th Cir. 1984) (television surveillance).

Finally, amended Rule 41(f)(3) is a new provision that permits the government to request, and the magistrate judge to grant, a delay in any notice required in Rule 41. The amendment is co-extensive with 18 U.S.C. §3103a (b). That new provision, added as part of the Uniting and Strengthening America by Providing Appropriate Tools Required to Intercept and Obstruct Terrorism (USA PATRIOT) Act of 2001, authorizes a court to delay any notice required in conjunction with the issuance of any search warrants.

Changes Made After Publication and Comment. The Committee agreed with the NADCL [sic] proposal that the words “has authority” should be inserted in Rule 41(c)(3), and (4) to parallel similar language in Rule 41(c)(1) and (2). The Committee also considered, but rejected, a proposal from NADCL [sic] to completely redraft Rule 41(d), regarding the finding of probable cause. The Committee also made minor clarifying changes in the Committee Note.

Committee Notes on Rules—2008 Amendment

Subdivision (b)(5). Rule 41(b)(5) authorizes a magistrate judge to issue a search warrant for property located within certain delineated parts of United States jurisdiction that are outside of any State or any federal judicial district. The locations covered by the rule include United States territories, possessions, and commonwealths not within a federal judicial district as well as certain premises associated with United States diplomatic and consular missions. These are locations in which the United States has a legally cognizable interest or in which it exerts lawful authority and control. The rule is intended to authorize a magistrate judge to issue a search warrant in any of the locations for which 18 U.S.C. §7 (9) provides jurisdiction. The difference between the language in this rule and the statute reflect the style conventions used in these rules, rather than any intention to alter the scope of the legal authority conferred. Under the rule, a warrant may be issued by a magistrate judge in any district in which activities related to the crime under investigation may have occurred, or in the District of Columbia, which serves as the default district for venue under 18 U.S.C. §3238.

Rule 41(b)(5) provides the authority to issue warrants for the seizure of property in the designated locations when law enforcement officials are required or find it desirable to obtain such warrants. The Committee takes no position on the question whether the Constitution requires a warrant for searches covered by the rule, or whether any international agreements, treaties, or laws of a foreign nation might be applicable. The rule does not address warrants for persons, which could be viewed as inconsistent with extradition requirements.

Changes Made to Proposed Amendment Released for Public Comment. With the assistance of the Style Consultant, the Committee revised (b)(5)(B) and (C) for greater clarity and compliance with the style conventions governing these rules. Because the language no longer tracks precisely the statute, the Committee Note was revised to state that the proposed rule is intended to have the same scope as the jurisdictional provision upon which it was based, 18 U.S.C. §7 (9).

Committee Notes on Rules—2009 Amendment

The time set in the former rule at 10 days has been revised to 14 days. See the Committee Note to Rule 45(a).

Subdivision (e)(2). Computers and other electronic storage media commonly contain such large amounts of information that it is often impractical for law enforcement to review all of the information during execution of the warrant at the search location. This rule acknowledges the need for a two-step process: officers may seize or copy the entire storage medium and review it later to determine what electronically stored information falls within the scope of the warrant.

The term “electronically stored information” is drawn from Rule 34(a) of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, which states that it includes “writings, drawings, graphs, charts, photographs, sound recordings, images, and other data or data compilations stored in any medium from which information can be obtained.” The 2006 Committee Note to Rule 34(a) explains that the description is intended to cover all current types of computer-based information and to encompass future changes and developments. The same broad and flexible description is intended under Rule 41.

In addition to addressing the two-step process inherent in searches for electronically stored information, the Rule limits the 10 [14] day execution period to the actual execution of the warrant and the on-site activity. While consideration was given to a presumptive national or uniform time period within which any subsequent off-site copying or review of the media or electronically stored information would take place, the practical reality is that there is no basis for a “one size fits all” presumptive period. A substantial amount of time can be involved in the forensic imaging and review of information. This is due to the sheer size of the storage capacity of media, difficulties created by encryption and booby traps, and the workload of the computer labs. The rule does not prevent a judge from imposing a deadline for the return of the storage media or access to the electronically stored information at the time the warrant is issued. However, to arbitrarily set a presumptive time period for the return could result in frequent petitions to the court for additional time.

It was not the intent of the amendment to leave the property owner without an expectation of the timing for return of the property, excluding contraband or instrumentalities of crime, or a remedy. Current Rule 41(g) already provides a process for the “person aggrieved” to seek an order from the court for a return of the property, including storage media or electronically stored information, under reasonable circumstances.

Where the “person aggrieved” requires access to the storage media or the electronically stored information earlier than anticipated by law enforcement or ordered by the court, the court on a case by case basis can fashion an appropriate remedy, taking into account the time needed to image and search the data and any prejudice to the aggrieved party.

The amended rule does not address the specificity of description that the Fourth Amendment may require in a warrant for electronically stored information, leaving the application of this and other constitutional standards concerning both the seizure and the search to ongoing case law development.

Subdivision (f)(1). Current Rule 41(f)(1) does not address the question of whether the inventory should include a description of the electronically stored information contained in the media seized. Where it is impractical to record a description of the electronically stored information at the scene, the inventory may list the physical storage media seized. Recording a description of the electronically stored information at the scene is likely to be the exception, and not the rule, given the large amounts of information contained on electronic storage media and the impracticality for law enforcement to image and review all of the information during the execution of the warrant. This is consistent with practice in the “paper world.” In circumstances where filing cabinets of documents are seized, routine practice is to list the storage devices, i.e., the cabinets, on the inventory, as opposed to making a document by document list of the contents.

Changes Made to Proposed Amendment Released for Public Comment. The words “copying or” were added to the last line of Rule 41(e)(2)(B) to clarify that copying as well as review may take place off-site.

The Committee Note was amended to reflect the change to the text and to clarify that the amended Rule does not speak to constitutional questions concerning warrants for electronic information. Issues of particularity and search protocol are presently working their way through the courts. Compare United States v. Carey, 172 F.3d 1268 (10th Cir. 1999) (finding warrant authorizing search for “documentary evidence pertaining to the sale and distribution of controlled substances” to prohibit opening of files with a .jpg suffix) and United States v. Fleet Management Ltd., 521 F. Supp. 2d 436 (E.D. Pa. 2007) (warrant invalid when it “did not even attempt to differentiate between data that there was probable cause to seize and data that was completely unrelated to any relevant criminal activity”) with United States v. Comprehensive Drug Testing, Inc., 513 F.3d 1085 (9th Cir. 2008) (the government had no reason to confine its search to key words; “computer files are easy to disguise or rename, and were we to limit the warrant to such a specific search protocol, much evidence could escape discovery simply because of [the defendants’] labeling of the files”); United States v. Brooks, 427 F.3d 1246 (10th Cir. 2005) (rejecting requirement that warrant describe specific search methodology).

Minor changes were also made to conform to style conventions.

Committee Notes on Rules—2011 Amendment

Subdivisions (d)(3) and (e)(3). The amendment deletes the provisions that govern the application for and issuance of warrants by telephone or other reliable electronic means. These provisions have been transferred to new Rule 4.1, which governs complaints and warrants under Rules 3, 4, 9, and 41.

Subdivision (e)(2). The amendment eliminates unnecessary references to “calendar” days. As amended effective December 1, 2009, Rule 45(a)(1) provides that all periods of time stated in days include “every day, including intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays[.]”

Subdivisions (f)(1) and (2). The amendment permits any warrant return to be made by reliable electronic means. Requiring an in-person return can be burdensome on law enforcement, particularly in large districts when the return can require a great deal of time and travel. In contrast, no interest of the accused is affected by allowing what is normally a ministerial act to be done electronically. Additionally, in subdivision (f)(2) the amendment eliminates unnecessary references to “calendar” days. As amended effective December 1, 2009, Rule 45(a)(1) provides that all periods of time stated in days include “every day, including intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays[.]”

Changes Made to Proposed Amendment Released for Public Comment

Obsolescent references to “calendar” days were deleted by a technical and conforming amendment not included in the rule as published. No other changes were made after publication.

Committee Notes on Rules—2016 Amendment

Subdivision (b). The revision to the caption is not substantive. Adding the word “venue” makes clear that Rule 41(b) identifies the courts that may consider an application for a warrant, not the constitutional requirements for the issuance of a warrant, which must still be met.

Subdivision (b)(6). The amendment provides that in two specific circumstances a magistrate judge in a district where activities related to a crime may have occurred has authority to issue a warrant to use r emote access to search electronic storage media and seize or copy electronically stored information even when that media or information is or may be located outside of the district.

First, subparagraph (b)(6)(A) provides authority to issue a warrant to use remote access within or outside that district when the district in which the media or information is located is not known because of the use of technology such as anonymizing software.

Second, (b)(6)(B) allows a warrant to use remote access within or outside the district in an investigation of a violation of 18 U.S.C. § 1030(a)(5) if the media to be searched are protected computers that have been damaged without authorization, and they are located in many districts. Criminal activity under 18 U.S.C. § 1030(a)(5) (such as the creation and control of “botnets”) may target multiple computers in several districts. In investigations of this nature, the amendment would eliminate the burden of attempting to secure multiple warrants in numerous districts, and allow a single judge to oversee the investigation.

As used in this rule, the terms “protected computer” and “damage” have the meaning provided in 18 U.S.C. § 1030(e)(2) & (8).

The amendment does not address constitutional questions, such as the specificity of description that the Fourth Amendment may require in a warrant for remotely searching electronic storage media or seizing or copying electronically stored information, leaving the application of this and other constitutional standards to ongoing case law development.

Subdivision (f)(1)(C). The amendment is intended to ensure that reasonable efforts are made to provide notice of the search, seizure, or copying, as well as a receipt for any information that was seized or copied, to the person whose property was searched or who possessed the in formation that was seized or copied. Rule 41(f)(3) allows delayed notice only “if the delay is authorized by statute.” See 18 U.S.C. § 3103a (authorizing delayed notice in limited circumstances).

Amendment by Public Law

2001 —Subd. (a). Pub. L. 107–56 inserted before period at end “and (3) in an investigation of domestic terrorism or international terrorism (as defined in section 2331 of title 18, United States Code), by a Federal magistrate judge in any district in which activities related to the terrorism may have occurred, for a search of property or for a person within or outside the district”.

Effective Date of 1977 Amendment

Amendment of this rule by order of the United States Supreme Court on Apr. 26, 1976, modified and approved by Pub. L. 95–78, effective Oct. 1, 1977, see section 4 of Pub. L. 95–78, set out as an Effective Date of Pub. L. 95–78 note under section 2074 of Title 28, Judiciary and Judicial Procedure.

Effective Date of 1976 Amendment

Amendment of subd. (c)(1) by order of the United States Supreme Court of Apr. 26, 1976, effective Aug. 1, 1976, see section 1 of Pub. L. 94–349, set out as a note under section 2074 of Title 28, Judiciary and Judicial Procedure.

Effective Date of 1956 Amendment

Amendment by Order of April 9, 1956, became effective 90 days thereafter.

5.6 Optional Reading 5.6 Optional Reading

5.6.4 United States v. Werdene (3d Cir. 2018) 5.6.4 United States v. Werdene (3d Cir. 2018)

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UNITED STATES of America
v.
Gabriel WERDENE, Appellant

No. 16-3588

United States Court of Appeals, Third Circuit.

Argued on October 23, 2017
Opinion Filed: February 21, 2018

Leigh M. Skipper, Brett G. Sweitzer [Argued], Office of the Federal Public Defender, 601 Walnut Street, Suite 540 West, Philadelphia, PA 19106, Counsel for Appellant

Louis D. Lappen, Robert A. Zauzmer, Michelle L. Morgan [Argued], Office of United States Attorney, 615 Chestnut Street, Suite 1250, Philadelphia, PA 19106, Counsel for Appellee

Before: GREENAWAY, JR., NYGAARD, FISHER, Circuit Judges.

GREENAWAY, JR., Circuit Judge.

This case arises from the Federal Bureau of Investigation's (FBI) investigation into Playpen, a global online forum that existed on the dark web1 and that was dedicated to the advertisement and distribution of child pornography. The website had a substantial amount of users. In fact, more than 150,000 users collectively engaged in over 95,000 posts with over 9,000 forum topics related to child pornography. This appeal centers on the FBI's decision to rely on a single search warrant, issued in the Eastern District of Virginia ("EDVA"), to search the computers of thousands of Playpen users across the United States and the world using a form of government-created malware termed a "Network Investigative Technique" ("NIT").

Appellant Gabriel Werdene, a citizen of Pennsylvania, was a Playpen user whose computer was compromised by the NIT. Subsequently, he was charged in the Eastern District of Pennsylvania ("EDPA") with one count of possessing child pornography, in violation of 18 U.S.C. § 2252(a)(4)(B). He filed a motion to suppress the evidence seized during the search of his computer, including the information revealed by the use of the NIT. The District Court denied the suppression motion, holding that the NIT warrant violated the version of Fed. R. Crim. P. 41(b) then in effect (" Rule 41(b)")2 , but that the *207NIT itself did not constitute a search under the Fourth Amendment and that Werdene was not prejudiced by the error. On appeal, Werdene contends that the District Court erred in holding that no Fourth Amendment search took place. Further, he argues that the issuance of the warrant violated his Fourth Amendment rights because it lacked particularity and was issued in violation of the jurisdictional requirements set forth in both Rule 41(b) and the Federal Magistrates Act. The Government concedes that a Fourth Amendment search occurred, but contends that the NIT was authorized by Rule 41(b)(4) and that, in any event, the good-faith exception to the exclusionary rule precludes suppression.

We hold that the NIT warrant violated the prior version of Rule 41(b) and that the magistrate judge exceeded her authority under the Federal Magistrates Act. The warrant was therefore void ab initio , and the Rule 41(b) infraction rose to the level of a Fourth Amendment violation. However, we agree with the Government that the good-faith exception to the exclusionary rule may apply to warrants that are void ab initio , which ultimately precludes suppression in this case. We therefore will affirm on alternative grounds the District Court's decision to deny Werdene's suppression motion.

I. FACTS AND PROCEDURAL HISTORY

To inform our forthcoming analysis, we shall detail how Playpen escaped traditional law enforcement detection and how the FBI circumvented the dark web to apprehend its users.

A. Tor

The Playpen site operated on the anonymous "The Onion Router" ("Tor") network-a constituent part of the "dark web"-which allows users to conceal their actual internet protocol ("IP") addresses while accessing the internet.3 An IP address is a unique identifier assigned by an internet service provider to every computer having access to the internet, including computer servers that host websites. Websites that the computer user visits can log the computer's IP address, creating a digital record of activity on each website. After lawful seizure of an illicit website under normal circumstances, law enforcement is able to retrieve the website's IP log to locate and apprehend its users.

Tor, however, prevents websites from registering a computer's actual IP address by sending user communications through a network of relay computers called "nodes" up until those communications reach the website. Numerous intermediary computers therefore stand between the accessing computer and the website, and the website can log the IP address of only the "exit node", which is the final computer in the sequence. Accordingly, Playpen's IP log-like that of other Tor websites-contained only the IP addresses of the exit nodes, rendering traditional IP identification techniques useless.

B. The Playpen Investigation

In December 2014, a foreign law enforcement agency informed the FBI that Playpen was being hosted by a computer server in North Carolina. Playpen's administrator was identified as a person residing *208in Florida, who was promptly arrested.4 The FBI then lawfully seized the server, moved it to a government facility in EDVA, and obtained a wiretap order to monitor communications on it. It then assumed administrative control of Playpen and allowed the website to operate while law enforcement officials tried to circumvent Tor and identify Playpen's users.

The FBI's solution was the NIT, a form of government-created malware that allowed the FBI to retrieve identifying information from Playpen users located all around the world. The NIT's deployment worked in multiple steps. First, the FBI modified Playpen's code so that each accessing computer-unknowingly to the user and no matter the computer's physical location-downloaded the NIT whenever a "user or administrator log[ged] into [Playpen] by entering a username and password." App. 133. Once downloaded, the NIT searched the accessing computer for seven discrete pieces of identifying information: (1) an IP address; (2) a unique identifier to distinguish the data from that of other computers; (3) the type of operating system; (4) information about whether the NIT had already been delivered; (5) a Host Name; (6) an active operating system username; and (7) a Media Access Control address. Finally, the NIT transmitted this information back to a government-controlled computer in EDVA. The FBI postulated that it could then rely on this information to identify users' premises and distinguish their computers from other computers located within their proximity.

In February 2015, the FBI obtained a search warrant from a magistrate judge in EDVA to deploy the NIT to all "activating computers." App. 106. An "activating computer" was defined in the search warrant as the computer of "any user or administrator who logs into [Playpen] by entering a username and password." Id . Further, the NIT could be deployed to any activating computer "wherever located ." App. 136 (emphasis added). In other words, this single warrant authorized the FBI to retrieve identifying information from computers all across the United States, and from all around the world. Most importantly, these computers were overwhelmingly located outside of EDVA.

C. Charges Against Werdene and Suppression Motion

Analysis of the NIT data revealed the IP address of a Playpen user, eventually identified as Werdene, residing in Bensalem, Pennsylvania. In the final month of the website's operation, Werdene was logged in for approximately ten hours and made six text postings, commenting on child pornography and sharing links under the username "thepervert." The FBI obtained a separate search warrant for Werdene's home from a magistrate judge in EDPA, where agents seized one USB drive and one DVD containing child pornography.5

In September 2015, Werdene was charged in EDPA with one count of possessing child pornography, in violation of 18 U.S.C. § 2252(a)(4)(B). He filed a motion to suppress the evidence seized during *209the search of his computer, including the information revealed by the NIT, the evidence subsequently seized from his home, and statements that he later made to the FBI. Werdene argued that the warrant was issued in violation of the jurisdictional requirements set forth in Rule 41(b), and that suppression was required because the violation was constitutional in nature and the good-faith exception to the exclusionary rule did not apply. The Government did not contend that the NIT warrant was explicitly authorized by Rule 41(b), but argued that the rule was flexible and expansive, and included warrants based on technological advances-such as the NIT warrant-which came within the spirit of the rule.

The District Court denied the motion in a memorandum and order issued on May 18, 2016. It first held that the NIT warrant violated Rule 41(b) because the magistrate judge in EDVA was without authority to issue a warrant to search Werdene's computer in EDPA. But the District Court also held that the NIT was not a "search" within the meaning of the Fourth Amendment because Werdene lacked a reasonable expectation of privacy to his computer's IP address. It concluded that the Fourth Amendment was not implicated, and that the Rule 41(b) violation was only "technical" in nature. The District Court therefore denied the suppression motion on the bases that the Government did not intentionally disregard the Rule's requirements and that Werdene was not prejudiced by the violation. This appeal followed.

On June 7, 2016, Werdene pled guilty pursuant to a plea agreement in which he reserved his right to appeal the District Court's ruling on the suppression motion. On September 7, 2016, the District Court accepted the recommendation of the U.S. Probation Office and applied a downward variance from the United States Federal Sentencing Guideline's range of 51-63 months. It sentenced Werdene to 24 months' imprisonment, a term of supervised release of five years, and restitution in the amount of $1,500.

II. JURISDICTION AND STANDARD OF REVIEW

The District Court had original jurisdiction over this case pursuant to 18 U.S.C. § 3231. Our jurisdiction arises from 28 U.S.C. § 1291. "We review the District Court's denial of a motion to suppress for clear error as to the underlying factual determinations but exercise plenary review over the District Court's application of law to those facts." United States v. Murray , 821 F.3d 386, 390-91 (3d Cir. 2016) (quoting United States v. Stabile , 633 F.3d 219, 230 (3d Cir. 2011) ).

III. DISCUSSION

This case requires us to decide a multitude of issues regarding Rule 41 and the Fourth Amendment. First, we must determine whether the NIT warrant violated Rule 41. If it did not, then we will affirm the District Court because there is no basis to grant Werdene's suppression motion. Second, if it did violate Rule 41, then we are required to decide whether the breach rose to the level of a Fourth Amendment violation. To do so, we consider whether the NIT warrant, by being issued by a magistrate judge beyond her jurisdiction, was void ab initio and, if so, whether such a transgression constituted a Fourth Amendment violation in the founding era. See Virginia v. Moore , 553 U.S. 164, 168, 128 S.Ct. 1598, 170 L.Ed.2d 559 (2008). If we do not find that a Fourth Amendment violation occurred, then the suppression motion must be denied unless Werdene can prove that he was prejudiced by the error or that the FBI acted with *210intentional and deliberate disregard for Rule 41. See United States v. Martinez-Zayas , 857 F.2d 122, 136 (3d Cir. 1988), overruled in part on other grounds by United States v. Chapple , 985 F.2d 729 (3d Cir. 1993). Third, if a Fourth Amendment violation did occur, then we are called upon to decide an issue of first impression for this Court: whether the good-faith exception to the exclusionary rule applies when a warrant is void ab initio . If it does not, then we apply the exclusionary rule without consideration of the good-faith exception. Fourth, if the good-faith exception does apply, then we must determine if it precludes suppression in this case.

For the reasons discussed below, we hold that the NIT warrant violated Rule 41(b). As a result, the magistrate judge not only exceeded her authority under the Rule as then drafted, but also under the Federal Magistrates Act, rendering the warrant void ab initio and raising the magnitude of the infraction from a technical one to a Fourth Amendment violation. On the other hand, we also hold that the good-faith exception applies to such warrants, which, given the circumstances of this case, precludes suppression. We therefore will affirm on alternative grounds the District Court's decision to deny Werdene's suppression motion.

A. Federal Magistrate Judge Jurisdiction

The Federal Magistrates Act, 28 U.S.C. § 636(a), authorizes federal magistrate judges to exercise the "powers and duties conferred ... by the Rules of Criminal Procedure" in three geographic areas: "[1] within the district in which sessions are held by the court that appointed the magistrate judge, [2] at other places where that court may function, and [3] elsewhere as authorized by law." § 636(a) ; see also United States v. Krueger , 809 F.3d 1109, 1118 (10th Cir. 2015) (Gorsuch, J., concurring). Accordingly, § 636(a) creates "jurisdictional limitations on the power of magistrate judges" because it "expressly and independently limits where those powers will be effective." Krueger , 809 F.3d at 1119 (Gorsuch, J., concurring); see also United States v. Hazlewood , 526 F.3d 862, 864 (5th Cir. 2008) ("In the Federal Magistrates Act, 28 U.S.C. § 636, Congress conferred jurisdiction to federal magistrate-judge[s]"); N.L.R.B. v. A-Plus Roofing, Inc. , 39 F.3d 1410, 1415 (9th Cir. 1994) ("[F]ederal magistrates are creatures of [ § 636(a) ], and so is their jurisdiction."); Gov't of Virgin Islands v. Williams , 892 F.2d 305, 309 (3d Cr. 1989) ("The jurisdiction of federal magistrates is defined by the Federal Magistrates Act.").

While § 636(a) defines the geographic scope of a magistrate judge's powers, the Rules of Criminal Procedure-including Rule 41(b) -define what those powers are. See § 636(a)(1) ; see also Krueger , 809 F.3d at 1119 (Gorsuch, J., concurring). Rule 41(b) provides that a magistrate judge may "issue a warrant to search for and seize a person or property located within the district." Fed. R. Crim. P. 41(b)(1). At the time that the NIT warrant was issued, the Rule also authorized four exceptions to this territorial restriction: (1) for property that might be moved outside the district before the warrant is executed, Fed. R. Crim. P. 41(b)(2) ; (2) for terrorism investigations, Fed. R. Crim. P. 41(b)(3) ; (3) to install a tracking device within the magistrate judge's district that may track the movement of property outside that district, Fed. R. Crim. P. 41(b)(4) ; and (4) to search and seize property located outside any district but within the jurisdiction of the United States, Fed. R. Crim. P. 41(b)(5). Notably, "[n]one of these [ Rule 41(b) ] exceptions expressly allow a magistrate judge in one jurisdiction to authorize the search of a computer in a different *211jurisdiction." United States v. Horton , 863 F.3d 1041, 1047 (8th Cir. 2017).

B. The NIT Warrant Violated Rule 41(b)

We must first determine whether the NIT warrant violated Rule 41(b). The Government conceded below that "[a]lthough Rule 41 does authorize a judge to issue a search warrant for a search in another district in some circumstances, it does not explicitly do so in these circumstances ." App. 91 (Government Br. in Opposition to Motion to Suppress) (emphasis added). Given the concession, the Government instead argued that the Rule set forth an illustrative, rather than exhaustive, list of circumstances in which a magistrate judge may issue a warrant.

On appeal, however, the Government curiously has reversed course, and now contends that the NIT was in fact explicitly authorized by Rule 41(b)(4), which provides that a magistrate judge may "issue a warrant to install within the district a tracking device; the warrant may authorize use of the device to track the movement of a person or property located within the district, outside the district, or both." Fed. R. Crim. P. 41(b)(4) (emphasis added).

According to the Government, under this Rule, "the NIT warrant properly authorized use of the NIT to track the movement of information-the digital child pornography content requested by users who logged into Playpen's website-as it traveled from the server in [EDVA] through the encrypted Tor network to its final destination: the users' computers, wherever located." Government Br. at 30. At that point, the NIT caused the Playpen users' computers to transmit the identifying information back to the FBI over the open internet, thus enabling law enforcement to locate and identify the user. In the Government's estimation, the NIT is similar to a transmitter affixed to an automobile that is programmed to send location-enabling signals (like GPS coordinates) back to a government-controlled receiver because it was designed to send location-enabling information (like an actual IP address) back to a government-controlled computer. "Thus, although not a physical beeper affixed to a tangible object [as was the case in, for example, United States v. Karo , 468 U.S. 705, 104 S.Ct. 3296, 82 L.Ed.2d 530 (1984) ], the NIT operated as a digital tracking device of intangible information within the meaning of Rule 41(b)(4)." Id . at 32.

We need not resolve Werdene's contention that the Government waived this argument because we find that the Government's tracking device analogy is inapposite. As an initial matter, it is clear that the FBI did not believe that the NIT was a tracking device at the time that it sought the warrant. Warrants issued under Rule 41(b)(4) are specialized documents that are denominated "Tracking Warrant" and require the Government to submit a specialized "Application for a Tracking Warrant." See ADMINISTRATIVE OFFICE OF U.S. COURTS, CRIMINAL FORMS AO 102 (2009) & AO 104 (2016). Here, the FBI did not submit an application for a tracking warrant-rather, it applied for, and received, a standard search warrant. Indeed, the term "tracking device" is absent from the NIT warrant application and supporting affidavit.

More importantly, the analogy does not withstand scrutiny. The explicit purpose of the warrant was not to track movement-as would be required under Rule 41(b)(4) -but to "obtain[ ] information" from "activating computers." App. 106. As discussed above, the NIT was designed to search -not track -the user's computer for the IP address and other identifying information, and to transmit that data *212back to a government-controlled server. Although the seized information (mainly the IP address) assisted the FBI in identifying a user, it provided no information as to the computer's or user's precise and contemporary physical location. This fact-that the NIT did not track movement -is dispositive, because Rule 41(b)(4) is "based on the understanding that the device will assist officers only in tracking the movements of a person or object." Fed. R. Crim. P. 41 Advisory Committee's Note (2006) (emphasis added); see also Fed. R. Crim. P. 41(a)(2)(E) (incorporating the definition of "tracking device" from 18 U.S.C. § 3117(b), which is "an electronic or mechanical device which permits the tracking of the movement of a person or object." 18 U.S.C. § 3117(b) (emphasis added) ). The NIT, by not contemporaneously transmitting the location of the computers that it searched, was therefore unlike the quintessential tracking device that the Government used in United States v. Jones , which "track[ed] the vehicle's movements ... [b]y means of signals from multiple satellites, the device established the vehicle's location within 50 to 100 feet, and communicated that location by cellular phone to a Government computer." 565 U.S. 400, 403, 132 S.Ct. 945, 181 L.Ed.2d 911 (2012) (emphasis added).

Furthermore, Rule 41(b)(4) requires that a tracker be "install[ed] within the district." Fed. R. Crim. P. 41(b)(4). It is difficult to imagine a scenario where the NIT was "installed" on Werdene's computer-which was physically located in Pennsylvania-in EDVA. The Eighth Circuit, which is the only other Court of Appeals to address the Government's Rule 41(b)(4) argument to date, rejected it on this basis:

The government argues that the defendants made a "virtual" trip to the Eastern District of Virginia to access child pornography and that investigators "installed" the NIT within that district. Although plausible, this argument is belied by how the NIT actually worked: it was installed on the defendants' computers in their homes in Iowa.... [W]e agree with the district court that the "virtual trip" fiction "stretches the rule too far."

Horton , 863 F.3d at 1047-48 (citations omitted).

The Government correctly contends that Rule 41 should be read flexibly "to include within its scope electronic intrusions authorized upon a finding of probable cause" so that it can keep up with technological innovations. United States v. New York Tel. Co. , 434 U.S. 159, 169, 98 S.Ct. 364, 54 L.Ed.2d 376 (1977). However, as the District Court aptly stated, "[e]ven a flexible application of the Rule ... is insufficient to allow the Court to read into it powers possessed by the magistrate that are clearly not contemplated and do not fit into any of the five subsections." United States v. Werdene , 188 F.Supp.3d 431, 441 (E.D. Pa. 2016). For the aforementioned reasons, the NIT was not a "tracking device" under Rule 41(b)(4), and therefore the warrant violated the Rule.6

C. The NIT Warrant Violated the Fourth Amendment

Since the NIT warrant violated Rule 41(b), we next consider the nature of the violation to assess if suppression is warranted. See *213United States v. Simons , 206 F.3d 392, 403 (4th Cir. 2000) ("There are two categories of Rule 41 violations: those involving constitutional violations, and all others."). If the violation is "constitutional"-i.e., a violation of the Fourth Amendment-then suppression is governed by the exclusionary rule standards applicable to Fourth Amendment violations generally. See Martinez-Zayas , 857 F.2d at 136 ; see also United States v. Franz , 772 F.3d 134, 145 (3d Cir. 2014) ("The exclusionary rule is a prudential doctrine designed to enforce the Fourth Amendment...."). If, however, the violation is not of constitutional magnitude, but rather is "ministerial" or "technical" in nature, then suppression is warranted only if "(1) there was 'prejudice' in the sense that the search might not have occurred or would not have been so abrasive if the Rule had been followed, or (2) there is evidence of intentional and deliberate disregard of a provision in the Rule." Martinez-Zayas , 857 F.2d at 136 (quoting United States v. Burke , 517 F.2d 377, 386-87 (2d Cir. 1975) ).

The Fourth Amendment guarantees that:

[t]he right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no Warrant shall issue, but upon probable cause, supported by Oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized.

U.S. Const. amend. IV.

"[T]he overriding function of the Fourth Amendment is to protect personal privacy and dignity against unwarranted intrusion by the State." Reedy v. Evanson , 615 F.3d 197, 228 (3d Cir. 2010) (quoting Schmerber v. California , 384 U.S. 757, 767, 86 S.Ct. 1826, 16 L.Ed.2d 908 (1966) ); see also United States v. Pollard , 326 F.3d 397, 410 (3d Cir. 2003) ("The Fourth Amendment's 'central concern ... is to protect liberty and privacy from arbitrary and oppressive interference by government officials.' " (quoting United States v. Ortiz, 422 U.S. 891, 895, 95 S.Ct. 2585, 45 L.Ed.2d 623 (1975) ) ). The Fourth Amendment only prohibits unreasonable searches and seizures, and the Supreme Court has counseled that the Fourth Amendment encompasses "at a minimum, the degree of protection it afforded when it was adopted." Jones , 565 U.S. at 411, 132 S.Ct. 945. Accordingly, "[w]e look to the statutes and common law of the founding era to determine the norms that the Fourth Amendment was meant to preserve." Moore , 553 U.S. at 168, 128 S.Ct. 1598 ; see also United States v. Phillips , 834 F.3d 1176, 1179 (11th Cir. 2016).

We must therefore determine whether the circumstances of this case constituted a Fourth Amendment violation during the founding era.7 "The principle animating *214the common law at the time of the Fourth Amendment's framing was clear: a warrant may travel only so far as the power of its issuing official." Krueger , 809 F.3d at 1124 (Gorsuch, J., concurring). The NIT warrant clearly violated this precept. The magistrate judge not only exceeded the territorial scope of Rule 41(b), but, as a result of that violation, she also exceeded the jurisdiction that § 636(a) imposes on magistrate judges. Under § 636(a), the magistrate judge was only authorized to exercise the powers of Rule 41(b) under three circumstances: (1) "within the district" that appointed her-i.e., EDVA, (2) "at other places where [EDVA] may function", and (3) "elsewhere as authorized by law." § 636(a). Pennsylvania obviously does not fall within the confines of EDVA or its places of function, and we have already held that Rule 41(b) did not authorize the NIT warrant.

The NIT warrant was therefore void ab initio because it violated § 636(a) 's jurisdictional limitations and was not authorized by any positive law.8 See United States v. Master , 614 F.3d 236, 239 (6th Cir. 2010) ("[W]hen a warrant is signed by someone who lacks the legal authority necessary to issue search warrants, the warrant is void ab initio .") (quoting United States v. Scott , 260 F.3d 512, 515 (6th Cir. 2001) ); see also Horton , 863 F.3d at 1049 ("[T]he NIT warrant was void ab initio ...."); United States v. Baker , 894 F.2d 1144, 1147 (10th Cir. 1990) (suppressing evidence of search on Indian land because state court lacked authority to issue search warrant).

It follows that the Rule 41(b) violation was of constitutional magnitude because "at the time of the framing ... a warrant issued for a search or seizure beyond the territorial jurisdiction of a magistrate's powers under positive law was treated as no warrant at all." Krueger , 809 F.3d at 1123 (Gorsuch, J., concurring); see also Engleman v. Deputy Murray , 546 F.3d 944, 948-49 (8th Cir. 2008) ("Under a historical understanding of the Fourth Amendment, the jurisdiction of the issuing judge and the executing officer is limited, and a warrant is not valid if an officer acts outside of that limited jurisdiction.").

The Government retorts that the NIT warrant was valid for the purposes of the Fourth Amendment because it met the Supreme Court's three constitutional requirements for validity: it was "(1) supported by probable cause, (2) sufficiently particular, and (3) issued by a neutral and detached magistrate." Government Br. at 36 (citing Dalia v. United States , 441 U.S. 238, 255, 99 S.Ct. 1682, 60 L.Ed.2d 177 (1979) ). Furthermore, the Government frames Rule 41(b) as a venue provision that is entirely procedural in nature and not substantive-accordingly, because the Fourth Amendment is silent about the proper venue for applying for a search warrant, a Rule 41(b) violation can "only rarely [be] deemed constitutional." Id . at 38. But none of this overcomes our dispositive finding that the magistrate judge acted outside of her jurisdiction under § 636(a). As the D.C. Circuit aptly put it, "[e]ven if we assume that an imperfect authorizing order could be thought facially sufficient, we do not see how a blatant disregard of a ... judge's jurisdictional limitation can be regarded as only 'technical.' " United States v. Glover , 736 F.3d 509, 515 (D.C. Cir. 2013).9

*215D. The Exclusionary Rule and Good Faith Exception

Having established that a Fourth Amendment violation occurred, we must now address an issue of first impression for this Court: does the good-faith exception to the exclusionary rule apply when a warrant is void ab initio due to the magistrate judge lacking jurisdiction to issue it? We must consider the purpose of the exclusionary rule to address this inquiry. See United States v. Wright , 777 F.3d 635, 640 (3d Cir. 2015) (considering "the extent to which the violation ... undermined the purposes of the Fourth Amendment" when applying exclusionary rule).

The exclusionary rule is a prudential doctrine that "prevent[s] the government from relying at trial on evidence obtained in violation of the [Fourth] Amendment's strictures." Franz , 772 F.3d at 145. However, the rule is not intended to remedy Fourth Amendment violations, and does not necessarily apply each time a violation occurs. See Herring v. United States , 555 U.S. 135, 140, 129 S.Ct. 695, 172 L.Ed.2d 496 (2009). Put differently, "there is no constitutional right to have the evidentiary fruits of an illegal search or seizure suppressed at trial." United States v. Katzin , 769 F.3d 163, 170 (3d Cir. 2014) (en banc); see Davis v. United States , 564 U.S. 229, 236, 131 S.Ct. 2419, 180 L.Ed.2d 285 (2011) (noting that the Fourth Amendment "says nothing about suppressing evidence obtained in violation of [its] command."); United States v. Leon , 468 U.S. 897, 906, 104 S.Ct. 3405, 82 L.Ed.2d 677 (1984) ("[T]he use of fruits of a past unlawful search or seizure 'work[s] no new Fourth Amendment wrong.' " (quoting United States v. Calandra , 414 U.S. 338, 354, 94 S.Ct. 613, 38 L.Ed.2d 561 (1974) ) ).

Rather, the exclusionary rule aims to deter government violations of the Fourth Amendment. See Krueger , 809 F.3d at 1125 (Gorsuch, J., concurring) ("Even when an unreasonable search does exist, the Supreme Court has explained, we must be persuaded that 'appreciable deterrence' of police misconduct can be had before choosing suppression as the right remedy for a Fourth Amendment violation." (quoting Herring , 555 U.S. at 141, 129 S.Ct. 695 ) ); see also Elkins v. United States , 364 U.S. 206, 217, 80 S.Ct. 1437, 4 L.Ed.2d 1669 (1960) ("The [exclusionary] rule is calculated to prevent, not repair."). Accordingly, "[i]n determining whether the exclusionary rule applies, we engage in a cost-benefit analysis, balancing the 'deterrence benefits of suppression' against its 'substantial social costs.' " Franz , 772 F.3d at 145 (quoting Davis , 564 U.S. at 236, 131 S.Ct. 2419 ). These costs "almost always require[ ] courts to ignore reliable, trustworthy evidence bearing on guilt or innocence" of the defendant and "in many cases ... to suppress the truth and set the criminal loose in the community without punishment." Davis , 564 U.S. 229, 237, 131 S.Ct. 2419, 180 L.Ed.2d 285 (2011). As a result, "[s]uppression of evidence ... has always been our last resort, not our first impulse." Hudson v. Michigan , 547 U.S. 586, 591, 126 S.Ct. 2159, 165 L.Ed.2d 56 (2006).

In Katzin , we explained how the good-faith exception to the exclusionary rule effectuates this balance:

Where the particular facts of a case indicate that law enforcement officers *216act[ed] with an objectively reasonable good-faith belief that their conduct [was] lawful, or when their conduct involve[d] only simple, isolated negligence, there is no illicit conduct to deter. In such circumstances, the deterrence rationale loses much of its force and exclusion cannot pay its way. Alternatively, where law enforcement conduct is deliberate, reckless, or grossly negligent or involves recurring or systemic negligence, deterrence holds greater value and often outweighs the associated costs.

769 F.3d at 171 (internal quotation marks and citations omitted). We also acknowledged that the Supreme Court has applied the good-faith exception "across a range of cases." Id . (quoting Davis , 564 U.S. at 238, 131 S.Ct. 2419 ); see, e.g. , Davis , 564 U.S. at 241, 131 S.Ct. 2419 (good-faith exception applicable when warrant is invalid due to later-reversed binding appellate precedent); Herring , 555 U.S. at 147-48, 129 S.Ct. 695 (undiscovered error in police-maintained database); Arizona v. Evans, 514 U.S. 1, 14-16, 115 S.Ct. 1185, 131 L.Ed.2d 34 (1995) (undiscovered error in court-maintained database); Illinois v. Krull, 480 U.S. 340, 349-50, 107 S.Ct. 1160, 94 L.Ed.2d 364 (1987) (subsequently overturned statute); Massachusetts v. Sheppard, 468 U.S. 981, 990, 104 S.Ct. 3424, 82 L.Ed.2d 737 (1984) (judicial clerical error on warrant); Leon, 468 U.S. at 922, 104 S.Ct. 3405 (later-invalidated warrant).

On appeal, Werdene contends that the good-faith exception should not apply when a Fourth Amendment violation arises from a warrant that was void ab initio . He argues that the common theme in all of the Supreme Court's good-faith cases is that police reasonably relied on some positive law that was appropriately issued, even though it was later invalidated. According to Werdene, each of those sources-i.e., a warrant, a statute, binding case law, or non-binding case law-had the force of law, but a warrant that is void ab initio is different because "[a]ll proceedings of a court beyond its jurisdiction are void." Appellant Br. at 49 (quoting Ex parte Watkins , 28 U.S. 193, 197, 3 Pet. 193, 7 L.Ed. 650 (1830) ).

However, the fundamental flaw with Werdene's argument is that it does not appreciate the distinction between the validity of the warrant and the deterrence rationale of the exclusionary rule and the good-faith exception. Implicit in his argument is the assumption that where "the magistrate lacks authority to issue the contested warrant, the supposed 'good faith' of the officer who executes the warrant can do nothing to confer legal status upon the [void] warrant." Master , 614 F.3d at 242. But "whether to suppress evidence under the exclusionary rule is a separate question from whether the Government has violated an individual's Fourth Amendment rights." Katzin , 769 F.3d at 170 ; see also Master , 614 F.3d at 242 ("[T]he decision to exclude evidence is divorced from whether a Fourth Amendment violation occurred.").

Thus, in each of the Supreme Court's good-faith exception cases, "the Court has not focused on the type of Fourth Amendment violation at issue, but rather confined the 'good-faith inquiry ... to the objectively ascertainable question whether a reasonably well trained officer would have known that the search was illegal' in light of 'all of the circumstances.' " Horton , 863 F.3d at 1051 (quoting Herring , 555 U.S. at 145, 129 S.Ct. 695 ). We therefore hold that the good-faith exception applies to warrants that are void ab initio because "the issuing magistrate's lack of authority has no impact on police misconduct, if the officers mistakenly, but inadvertently, presented the warrant to an *217innocent magistrate." Master , 614 F.3d at 242.10

Having determined that the good-faith exception is applicable, we turn to whether it precludes suppression in this case. Here, the FBI sought and received a warrant, and we have identified only four scenarios in which reliance on a warrant is unreasonable:

(1) the magistrate issued the warrant in reliance on a deliberately or recklessly false affidavit;
(2) the magistrate abandoned his judicial role and failed to perform his neutral and detached function;
(3) the warrant was based on an affidavit so lacking in indicia of probable cause as to render official belief in its existence entirely unreasonable; or
(4) the warrant was so facially deficient that it failed to particularize the place to be searched or the things to be seized.

United States v. Pavulak , 700 F.3d 651, 664 (3d Cir. 2012) (quoting United States v. Stearn , 597 F.3d 540, 561 n.19 (3d Cir. 2010) ). The first three scenarios are entirely inapplicable here-Werdene contends only that the NIT warrant was facially deficient because it allegedly did not identify the location to be searched. But the NIT warrant adequately described the "Place to be Searched" as the "activating computers ... of any user or administrator who logs into [Playpen] by entering a username and password," and it described the "Information to be Seized ... from any 'activating' computer' " as seven discrete pieces of information. App. 106-07. The warrant was therefore far from facially deficient because it specified which computers would be searched and what information would be retrieved. See United States v. McLamb , 880 F.3d 685, 691 (4th Cir. 2018) ("Nor was the [NIT] warrant so 'facially deficient ... that the executing officers [could not] reasonably presume it to be valid.' " (second alteration in original) (quoting Leon , 468 U.S. at 923, 104 S.Ct. 3405 ) ); United States v. Levin , 874 F.3d 316, 323 (1st Cir. 2017) (same).

Here, the NIT warrant was issued by a neutral and detached, duly appointed magistrate judge, who determined that the warrant was supported by probable cause and particularly described the places to be searched and things to be seized. This, on its own, is sufficient for us to determine that the FBI acted in good-faith, especially because there is no evidence that it exceeded the scope of the warrant. See Leon , 468 U.S. at 922, 104 S.Ct. 3405 (" '[A] warrant issued by a magistrate normally suffices to establish' that a law enforcement officer has 'acted in good faith in conducting the search.' " (quoting United States v. Ross , 456 U.S. 798, 823, n.32, 102 S.Ct. 2157, 72 L.Ed.2d 572 (1982) ) ); see also Pavulak , 700 F.3d at 663 ("Ordinarily, the 'mere existence of a warrant ... suffices to prove that an officer conducted a search in good faith.' " (quoting Stearn , 597 F.3d at 561 ) ).

The Rule 41(b) error, therefore, was committed by the magistrate judge, not *218the FBI agents who reasonably relied on the NIT warrant, and we have repeatedly recognized that "officer[s] normally should not be penalized for the magistrate's mistake." Doe v. Groody , 361 F.3d 232, 244 (3d Cir. 2004) ; see also United States v. $ 92,422.57 , 307 F.3d 137, 152 (3d Cir. 2002) ("When a Magistrate Judge has [issued a warrant], law enforcement officers, who are rarely attorneys, are entitled to rely on the Magistrate Judge's judgment").

More importantly, the exclusionary rule "applies only where it 'result[s] in appreciable deterrence.' " Herring , 555 U.S. at 141, 129 S.Ct. 695 (quoting Leon , 468 U.S. at 909, 104 S.Ct. 3405 ) (emphasis added). Thus, even though Rule 41(b) did not authorize the magistrate judge to issue the NIT warrant, future law enforcement officers may apply for and obtain such a warrant pursuant to Rule 41(b)(6), which went into effect in December 2016 to authorize NIT-like warrants.11 Accordingly, a similar Rule 41(b) violation is unlikely to recur and suppression here will have no deterrent effect. This is dispositive because when the deterrent value of suppression is diminished, the "deterrence rationale loses much of its force and exclusion cannot pay its way." Katzin , 769 F.3d at 181 (quoting Leon , 468 U.S. at 907 n.6, 104 S.Ct. 3405 ).12

*219IV. CONCLUSION

For the reasons above, we will affirm on alternative grounds the District Court's decision to deny Werdene's suppression motion.

NYGAARD, Circuit Judge, concurring.

I join Judge Greenaway's well-reasoned opinion without reservation. However, I write separately to highlight a somewhat nuanced legal point that would go unnoticed were I not to comment. In an attempt to save the search at issue here from the strictures of the Fourth Amendment, the Government not only argued for application of the good faith exception, but also for the application of the tracking device exception set out in Fed. R. Crim. P. 41(b)(4) in the District Court. Anticipating that the Government might bring this argument up on appeal, Werdene argued in his opening brief that it was waived because the Government, contrary to its own interests, conceded in the District Court that none of Rule 41 's exceptions applied. And, indeed, the Government did concede-both in their opposition to the motion to suppress and in open court-that Rule 41 does not explicitly authorize a judge to issue a search warrant in the circumstances presented here. App. at 91-92, 250-251.

Now, the Government says that their tracking device argument is not waived because we can affirm on any basis that is supported by the record, see, e.g., Murray v. Bledsoe , 650 F.3d 246, 247 (3d Cir. 2011), and the Appellant does not quibble with that notion. Instead, Werdene argues that this prerogative is not available to an appellate court when a party has conceded the point on which we wish to affirm in district court. This is an interesting question and one that in my nearly three decades on this court I have not encountered.

The Government offers no authority to the contrary. Werdene points to one Supreme Court opinion and a couple of court of appeals opinions in support of his position. For example, in Steagald v. United States , 451 U.S. 204, 101 S.Ct. 1642, 68 L.Ed.2d 38 (1981), the Government conceded a particular factual point in the District Court (related to the ownership of a residence) and did so again in opposition to the petition for certiorari in the Supreme Court. But, in its brief to the Court, the Government argued the very point it had previously conceded in the District Court, maintaining that the Court could affirm by relying on any basis present on the record.

*220451 U.S. at 209, 101 S.Ct. 1642. The Supreme Court, to loosely paraphrase, would have none of it. The Court instructed that the Government loses its right to raise factual issues in the Supreme Court "when it has made contrary assertions in the courts below, when it has acquiesced in contrary findings by those courts, or when it has failed to raise such questions in a timely fashion during the litigation." Id . The other cases cited by the Appellant, United States v. Ornelas-Ledesma , 16 F.3d 714, 721 (7th Cir. 1994), United States v. Albrektsen , 151 F.3d 951, 954 (9th Cir. 1998), and United States v. Scales , 903 F.2d 765, 770 (10th Cir. 1990), all hold the Government to be bound by concessions it made in District Court.

Our case differs slightly in that the concession here was legal, not factual. In my view, this is a difference without a distinction. If, as here, the issue or argument has been conceded or waived before a district court, then we must not affirm on that basis. Judge Greenaway elided the issue as unnecessary to a decision in the cause before us. Slip Op. at 13. I do not disagree. I point out my thoughts on this matter nonetheless solely to remind practitioners of that old adage, "you cannot have it both ways." In my opinion, conceding a fact or a legal point in the District Court prevents us from affirming on that basis.

5.6.5 WhatsApp Inc. v. NSO Group Technologies Ltd., 472 F. Supp. 3d 649 (N.D. Cal. 2020) 5.6.5 WhatsApp Inc. v. NSO Group Technologies Ltd., 472 F. Supp. 3d 649 (N.D. Cal. 2020)

Subsequent history: aff’d, 17 F.4th 930 (9th Cir. 2021); petition for cert. filed, Apr. 6, 2022 (No. 21-1338)

Need help understanding this case? Here's news coverage of the ruling. Want to know more about how NSO Group helps foreign governments violate human rights? Read this New Yorker article... and then check out this brand-new (Nov. 12, 2022) New York Times article about how close our own FBI came to buying NSO's technology. 

472 F. Supp. 3d 649 (2020)

WHATSAPP INC., et al., Plaintiffs,
v.
NSO GROUP TECHNOLOGIES LIMITED, et al., Defendants.

Case No. 19-cv-07123-PJH.

United States District Court, N.D. California.

Signed July 16, 2020.

658*658 Travis LeBlanc, Joseph Douglas Mornin, Kyle Christopher Wong, Michael Graham Rhodes, Cooley LLP, San Francisco, CA, Antonio J. Perez-Marques, Pro Hac Vice, Craig Cagney, Pro Hac Vice, Greg D. Andres, Pro Hac Vice, Davis Polk, and Wardwell LLP, Ian Shapiro, Pro Hac Vice, Cooley LLP, New York, NY, Daniel Joseph Grooms, Pro Hac Vice, Elizabeth B. Prelogar, Cooley LLP, Michael R. Dreeben, Pro Hac Vice, OMelveny Myers LLP, Washington, DC, Micah Galvin Block, Davis Polk and Wardwell LLP, Menlo Park, CA, for Plaintiffs.

Joseph N. Akrotirianakis, Aaron S. Craig, King & Spalding LLP, Los Angeles, CA, for Defendants.

 

ORDER GRANTING IN PART AND DENYING IN PART MOTION TO DISMISS AND DENYING MOTION TO STAY DISCOVERY

Re: Dkt. Nos. 45, 95

PHYLLIS J. HAMILTON, United States District Judge.

Before the court is defendants NSO Group Technologies, Ltd. ("NSO") and Q Cyber Technologies Ltd.'s ("Q Cyber," and together with NSO, "defendants") motion to dismiss. The matter is fully briefed and suitable for decision without oral argument. Having read the parties' papers and carefully considered their arguments and the relevant legal authority, and good cause appearing, the court rules as follows.

BACKGROUND

On October 29, 2019, plaintiffs WhatsApp Inc. ("WhatsApp") and Facebook, Inc. ("Facebook" and together with WhatsApp, "plaintiffs") filed a complaint ("Compl.") alleging that defendants sent malware, using WhatsApp's system, to approximately 1,400 mobile phones and devices designed to infect those devices for the purpose of surveilling the users of those phones and devices. Dkt. 1, ¶ 1. The complaint alleges four causes of action: (1) violation of the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act ("CFAA"), 18 U.S.C. § 1030; (2) violation of the California Comprehensive Computer Data Access and Fraud Act, *659 Cal. Penal Code § 502; (3) breach of contract; and (4) trespass to chattels.

Plaintiff WhatsApp is a Delaware corporation with its principal place of business in Menlo Park, California and is owned by plaintiff Facebook, which is also a Delaware corporation with its principal place of business in Menlo Park, California. Compl. ¶¶ 3-4. WhatsApp provides an encrypted communication service that is accessed through the WhatsApp application ("app") that users must download to their personal devices. Id. ¶ 17. Defendant NSO is an Israeli limited liability company and defendant Q Cyber is an Israeli corporation and NSO's only active director and the majority shareholder. Id. ¶¶ 5-6. Defendants are alleged to manufacture, distribute, and operate surveillance technology "designed to intercept and extract information and communications from mobile phones and devices" Id. ¶ 24.

In order to use the WhatsApp app and service, WhatsApp users consent to WhatsApp's terms of service in which they agree to "use [WhatsApp's] Services according to [WhatsApp's] Terms and policies" and further agree to "access and use [WhatsApp's] Services only for legal, authorized, and acceptable purposes." Id. ¶¶ 19-20. WhatsApp's terms prohibit users from using services in ways that "violate, misappropriate, or infringe the rights of WhatsApp, [its] users, or others," "are illegal, intimidating, harassing, ... or instigate or encourage conduct that would be illegal, or otherwise inappropriate;" or "involve sending illegal or impermissible communications." Id. ¶ 21. Additionally, users are not permitted to:

(a) reverse engineer, alter, modify, create derivative works from, decompile, or extract code from our Services, (b) send, store, or transmit viruses or other harmful computer code through or onto our Services; (c) gain or attempt to gain unauthorized access to our Services or systems; (d) interfere with or disrupt the safety, security, or performance of our Services; [or] ... (f) collect the information of or about our users in any impermissible or unauthorized manner.

Id. ¶ 22.

Plaintiffs allege that defendants created a data program, termed Pegasus, that could "remotely and covertly extract valuable intelligence from virtually any mobile device." Id. ¶ 27. Defendants licensed Pegasus and sold support services to customers. Id. ¶ 29. According to public reporting and as alleged, defendants' customers include sovereign nations such as the Kingdom of Bahrain, the United Arab Emirates, and Mexico. Id. ¶ 43. Defendants could customize Pegasus for different purposes such that, once installed on a user's device, they could intercept communications, capture screenshots, or exfiltrate browser history and contacts from that user's device. Id. ¶¶ 27, 41. Defendants used a network of computers to monitor and update the version of Pegasus implanted on a user's phone as well as control the number of devices that a customer could compromise using Pegasus. Id. ¶ 28.

Between January 2018 and May 2019, defendants are alleged to have created WhatsApp accounts that could be used to send malicious code to personal devices in April and May 2019. Id. ¶ 33. Defendants also leased servers and internet hosting services from third parties such as Choopa, QuadraNet, and Amazon Web Service; the leased servers were used to distribute malware and relay commands to users' devices. Id. ¶ 34. Defendants reverse engineered the WhatsApp app and developed Pegasus to emulate legitimate WhatsApp network traffic. Id. ¶ 35.

Pegasus is alleged to operate by first routing malicious code through WhatsApp's relay servers to a user's device. Id. ¶ 36. Defendants formatted certain messages *660 containing the malicious code to appear like a legitimate call and concealed the code within the call settings. Id. ¶ 37. To avoid technical restrictions built into the WhatsApp signaling servers, defendants formatted call initiation messages that contained the malicious code to appear as a legitimate call. Id. The call would inject the malicious code into a device's memory whether or not the user answered the call. Id. After the malicious code was delivered to a device, defendants caused encrypted data packets to be sent to a user's device via WhatsApp's relay servers, designed to activate the malicious code residing on the memory of the target devices. Id. ¶ 39. Once activated, the malicious code caused the target device to connect to one of the leased, remote servers hosting defendants' malware, which was then downloaded and installed on the target devices. Id. ¶ 40. The malware would then give defendants and their customers access to information on the target devices. Id. ¶ 41.

Between April 29, 2019 and May 10, 2019, defendants caused their malicious code to be transmitted over WhatsApp's servers reaching approximately 1,400 devices used by "attorneys, journalists, human rights activists, political dissidents, diplomats, and other senior foreign government officials." Id. ¶ 42. On May 13, 2019, Facebook announced that it had investigated the vulnerability and WhatsApp and Facebook closed the vulnerability around that time. Id. ¶ 44.

DISCUSSION

A. Legal Standard

1. Rule 12(b)(1)

A federal court may dismiss an action under Federal Rule of Civil Procedure 12(b)(1) for lack of federal subject matter jurisdiction. Fed. R. Civ. P. 12(b)(1). Because "[a] federal court is presumed to lack jurisdiction in a particular case unless the contrary affirmatively appears," the burden to prove its existence "rests on the party asserting federal subject matter jurisdiction." Pac. Bell Internet Servs. v. Recording Indus. Ass'n of Am., Inc., No. C03-3560 SI, 2003 WL 22862662, at *3 (N.D. Cal. Nov. 26, 2003) (quoting Gen. Atomic Co. v. United Nuclear Corp., 655 F.2d 968, 969 (9th Cir. 1981); and citing Cal. ex rel. Younger v. Andrus, 608 F.2d 1247, 1249 (9th Cir. 1979)). A jurisdictional challenge may be facial or factual. Safe Air for Everyone v. Meyer, 373 F.3d 1035, 1039 (9th Cir. 2004) (citing White v. Lee, 227 F.3d 1214, 1242 (9th Cir. 2000)). When the attack is facial, the court determines whether the allegations contained in the complaint are sufficient on their face to invoke federal jurisdiction. Id. Where the attack is factual, however, "the court need not presume the truthfulness of the plaintiff's allegations." Id.

When resolving a factual dispute about its federal subject matter jurisdiction, a court may review extrinsic evidence beyond the complaint without converting a motion to dismiss into one for summary judgment. McCarthy v. United States, 850 F.2d 558, 560 (9th Cir. 1988) (holding that a court "may review any evidence, such as affidavits and testimony, to resolve factual disputes concerning the existence of jurisdiction"); see also Land v. Dollar, 330 U.S. 731, 735 n.4, 67 S.Ct. 1009, 91 L.Ed. 1209 (1947) ("[W]hen a question of the District Court's jurisdiction is raised ... the court may inquire by affidavits or otherwise, into the facts as they exist."). "Once the moving party has converted the motion to dismiss into a factual motion by presenting affidavits or other evidence properly brought before the court, the party opposing the motion must furnish affidavits or other evidence necessary to satisfy its burden of establishing subject matter jurisdiction." Safe Air for Everyone, 373 F.3d at 1039.

661*661 

2. Rule 12(b)(2)

A federal court may dismiss an action under Federal Rule of Civil Procedure 12(b)(2) for lack of personal jurisdiction. When resolving a motion to dismiss under Rule 12(b)(2) on written materials, the court accepts uncontroverted facts in the complaint as true and resolves conflicts in affidavits in the plaintiffs' favor. Mavrix Photo, Inc. v. Brand Techs., Inc., 647 F.3d 1218, 1223 (9th Cir. 2011). The party seeking to invoke a federal court's jurisdiction bears the burden of demonstrating jurisdiction. Picot v. Weston, 780 F.3d 1206, 1211 (9th Cir. 2015). "Federal courts ordinarily follow state law in determining the bounds of their jurisdiction over persons." Daimler AG v. Bauman, 571 U.S. 117, 125, 134 S.Ct. 746, 187 L.Ed.2d 624 (2014); see Fed. R. Civ. P. 4(k)(1)(a). California's long arm statute permits exercise of personal jurisdiction to the fullest extent permissible under the U.S. Constitution, therefore, the court's inquiry "centers on whether exercising jurisdiction comports with due process." Picot, 780 F.3d at 1211; see Cal. Code Civ. P. § 410.10.

The Due Process Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment "limits the power of a state's courts to exercise jurisdiction over defendants who do not consent to jurisdiction." Martinez v. Aero Caribbean, 764 F.3d 1062, 1066 (9th Cir. 2014). Due process requires that the defendant "have certain minimum contacts with it such that the maintenance of the suit does not offend traditional notions of fair play and substantial justice." Int'l Shoe Co. v. Washington, 326 U.S. 310, 316, 66 S.Ct. 154, 90 L.Ed. 95 (1945) (internal quotation marks omitted). Under the "minimum contacts" analysis, a court can exercise either "general or all-purpose jurisdiction," or "specific or conduct-linked jurisdiction." Daimler, 571 U.S. at 121-22, 134 S.Ct. 746 (citing Goodyear Dunlop Tires Operations, S.A. v. Brown, 564 U.S. 915, 919, 131 S.Ct. 2846, 180 L.Ed.2d 796 (2011)).

A court may exercise specific jurisdiction over a defendant if its less-substantial contacts with the forum give rise to the claim or claims pending before the court—that is, if the cause of action "arises out of" or has a substantial connection with that activity. Hanson v. Denckla, 357 U.S. 235, 250-53, 78 S.Ct. 1228, 2 L.Ed.2d 1283 (1958); see also Goodyear, 564 U.S. at 924-25, 131 S.Ct. 2846. The inquiry into whether a forum state may assert specific jurisdiction over a nonresident defendant focuses on the relationship among the defendant, the forum, and the litigation. Walden v. Fiore, 571 U.S. 277, 283-84, 134 S.Ct. 1115, 188 L.Ed.2d 12 (2014) (citation omitted).

To determine whether a defendant's contacts with the forum state are sufficient to establish specific jurisdiction, the Ninth Circuit employs a three-part test:

(1) The non-resident defendant must purposefully direct his activities or consummate some transaction with the forum or resident thereof; or perform some act by which he purposefully avails himself of the privilege of conducting activities in the forum, thereby invoking the benefits and protections of its laws;
(2) the claim must be one which arises out of or relates to the defendant's forum-related activities; and
(3) the exercise of jurisdiction must comport with fair play and substantial justice, i.e. it must be reasonable.

Morrill v. Scott Fin. Corp., 873 F.3d 1136, 1142 (9th Cir. 2017). A plaintiff bears the burden of satisfying the first two prongs. Id. If the plaintiff does so, then the burden shifts to the defendant to "set forth a `compelling case' that the exercise of jurisdiction would not be reasonable." College-Source, 662*662 Inc. v. AcademyOne, Inc., 653 F.3d 1066, 1076 (9th Cir. 2011) (quoting Burger King Corp. v. Rudzewicz, 471 U.S. 462, 477-78, 105 S.Ct. 2174, 85 L.Ed.2d 528 (1985)).

3. Rule 12(b)(6)

A motion to dismiss under Federal Rule of Civil Procedure 12(b)(6) tests for the legal sufficiency of the claims alleged in the complaint. Ileto v. Glock Inc., 349 F.3d 1191, 1199-1200 (9th Cir. 2003). Under Federal Rule of Civil Procedure 8, which requires that a complaint include a "short and plain statement of the claim showing that the pleader is entitled to relief," Fed. R. Civ. P. 8(a)(2), a complaint may be dismissed under Rule 12(b)(6) if the plaintiff fails to state a cognizable legal theory, or has not alleged sufficient facts to support a cognizable legal theory. Somers v. Apple, Inc., 729 F.3d 953, 959 (9th Cir. 2013).

While the court is to accept as true all the factual allegations in the complaint, legally conclusory statements, not supported by actual factual allegations, need not be accepted. Ashcroft v. Iqbal, 556 U.S. 662, 678-79, 129 S.Ct. 1937, 173 L.Ed.2d 868 (2009). The complaint must proffer sufficient facts to state a claim for relief that is plausible on its face. Bell Atl. Corp. v. Twombly, 550 U.S. 544, 555, 558-59, 127 S.Ct. 1955, 167 L.Ed.2d 929 (2007).

"A claim has facial plausibility when the plaintiff pleads factual content that allows the court to draw the reasonable inference that the defendant is liable for the misconduct alleged." Iqbal, 556 U.S. at 678, 129 S.Ct. 1937. "[W]here the well-pleaded facts do not permit the court to infer more than the mere possibility of misconduct, the complaint has alleged—but it has not `show[n]'—`that the pleader is entitled to relief.'" Id. at 679, 129 S.Ct. 1937 (quoting Fed. R. Civ. P. 8(a)(2)). Where dismissal is warranted, it is generally without prejudice, unless it is clear the complaint cannot be saved by any amendment. In re Daou Sys., Inc., 411 F.3d 1006, 1013 (9th Cir. 2005).

Review is generally limited to the contents of the complaint, although the court can also consider documents "whose contents are alleged in a complaint and whose authenticity no party questions, but which are not physically attached to the plaintiff's pleading." Knievel v. ESPN, 393 F.3d 1068, 1076 (9th Cir. 2005) (quoting In re Silicon Graphics Inc. Sec. Litig., 183 F.3d 970, 986 (9th Cir. 1999), superseded by statute on other grounds as stated in In re Quality Sys., Inc. Sec. Litig., 865 F.3d 1130 (9th Cir. 2017)); see also Sanders v. Brown, 504 F.3d 903, 910 (9th Cir. 2007) ("[A] court can consider a document on which the complaint relies if the document is central to the plaintiff's claim, and no party questions the authenticity of the document." (citation omitted)). The court may also consider matters that are properly the subject of judicial notice (Lee v. City of Los Angeles, 250 F.3d 668, 688-89 (9th Cir. 2001)), and exhibits attached to the complaint (Hal Roach Studios, Inc. v. Richard Feiner & Co., Inc., 896 F.2d 1542, 1555 n.19 (9th Cir. 1989)).

4. Rule 12(b)(7)

Federal Rule of Civil Procedure 12(b)(7) permits a party to move for dismissal for failure to join a party recognized as indispensable by Federal Rule of Civil Procedure 19. Fed. R. Civ. P. 12(b)(7); Quileute Indian Tribe v. Babbitt, 18 F.3d 1456, 1458 (9th Cir. 1994). Federal Rule of Civil Procedure 19 "governs compulsory party joinder in federal district courts." E.E.O.C. v. Peabody W. Coal Co. ("Peabody I"), 400 F.3d 774, 778 (9th Cir. 2005). When determining whether dismissal is appropriate under Rule 12(b)(7), the court undertakes "three successive inquiries." Id. at 779.

663*663 "First, the court must determine whether a nonparty should be joined under Rule 19(a)"—that is, whether a non-party is "necessary." Id. A nonparty is "necessary" if joinder is "`desirable' in the interests of just adjudication." Id. (quoting Fed. R. Civ. P. 19 Advisory Committee Note (1966)). "There is no precise formula for determining whether a particular non-party should be joined under Rule 19(a).... The determination is heavily influenced by the facts and circumstances of each case." E.E.O.C. v. Peabody W. Coal Co. ("Peabody II"), 610 F.3d 1070, 1081 (9th Cir. 2010) (quoting N. Alaska Envtl. Ctr. v. Hodel, 803 F.2d 466, 468 (9th Cir. 1986)).

A nonparty can be necessary under Rule 19(a)(1)(A) or Rule 19(a)(1)(B). A nonparty is necessary under Rule 19(a)(1)(A) if "in that person's absence, the court cannot accord complete relief among existing parties." Fed. R. Civ. P. 19(a)(1)(A). A nonparty is necessary under Rule 19(a)(1)(B) if that person "claims a legally protected interest in the subject of the suit such that a decision in its absence will (1) impair or impede its ability to protect that interest; or (2) expose [an existing party] to the risk of multiple or inconsistent obligations by reason of that interest." Dawavendewa v. Salt River Project Agr. Imp. & Power Dist., 276 F.3d 1150, 1155 (9th Cir. 2002).

Second, if a nonparty is necessary, the court determines "whether it is feasible to order that the absentee be joined." Peabody I, 400 F.3d at 779. Joinder is not feasible "when venue is improper, when the absentee is not subject to personal jurisdiction, and when joinder would destroy subject matter jurisdiction." Id. Third, if joinder is not feasible, the court must determine whether the party is "indispensable" under Rule 19(b), that is, whether "in equity and good conscience, the action should proceed among the existing parties or should be dismissed." Fed. R. Civ. P. 19(b). "The inquiry is a practical one and fact specific and is designed to avoid the harsh results of rigid application." Makah Indian Tribe v. Verity, 910 F.2d 555, 558 (9th Cir. 1990) (citations omitted).

When considering a motion to dismiss under Rule 12(b)(7), the court accepts as true the allegations in the plaintiff's complaint and draws all reasonable inferences in the plaintiff's favor. Paiute-Shoshone Indians of Bishop Cmty. of Bishop Colony, Cal. v. City of Los Angeles, 637 F.3d 993, 996 n.1 (9th Cir. 2011). But the court may consider evidence outside of the pleadings. See McShan v. Sherrill, 283 F.2d 462, 464 (9th Cir. 1960). "The moving party has the burden of persuasion in arguing for dismissal" for failure to join. Makah Indian Tribe, 910 F.2d at 558.

B. Analysis

1. Subject Matter Jurisdiction

As an initial observation, plaintiffs' complaint pleads a cause of action under the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act, 18 U.S.C. § 1030, invoking the court's federal question jurisdiction. See Gully v. First Nat'l Bank, 299 U.S. 109, 111, 57 S.Ct. 96, 81 L.Ed. 70 (1936). Defendants' attack on the court's subject matter jurisdiction is, therefore, not facial, but factual.

Defendants contend that the court lacks subject matter jurisdiction because the conduct giving rise to the complaint was performed by foreign sovereigns and the Foreign Sovereign Immunity Act ("FSIA"), 28 U.S.C. §§ 1602-11, bars any lawsuit on that basis. Mtn. at 8-9. Defendants also assert that the court should extend the doctrine of derivative sovereign immunity to them because defendants were contractors of the foreign sovereigns 664*664 acting within the scope of their employment. Id. at 9-10.

The FSIA provides that "a foreign state shall be immune from the jurisdiction of the courts of the United States and of the States" except as provided in the FSIA. 28 U.S.C. § 1604. The parties agree that defendants, as private foreign entities, do not qualify as foreign states and cannot directly avail themselves of the FSIA. Opp. at 3; Reply at 9. More pertinent is whether defendants may avail themselves of some sort of derivative sovereign immunity. There are two relevant doctrines implicated by defendants' argument: foreign official immunity and derivative sovereign immunity. The court addresses each in turn.

a. Foreign Official Immunity

In Samantar v. Yousuf, 560 U.S. 305, 308, 130 S.Ct. 2278, 176 L.Ed.2d 1047 (2010), the Supreme Court addressed whether the FSIA afforded a former Somali vice president and defense minister with immunity from suit based on actions taken in his official capacity. While the Court ultimately concluded that the FSIA did not extend to foreign officials, the Court separately discussed the common law doctrine of foreign sovereign immunity, which potentially applies to the acts of foreign officials not covered by the FSIA. See id. at 311, 130 S.Ct. 2278 (citing Schooner Exchange v. McFaddon, 7 Cranch 116, 3 L.Ed. 287 (1812)). Over time, courts formulated a "two-step procedure developed for resolving a foreign state's claim of sovereign immunity." Id. The first step involves requesting a "suggestion of immunity" from the U.S. State Department. Id. If the State Department declines to issue the suggestion, then a district court "ha[s] authority to decide for itself whether all the requisites for immunity exist[]." Id. (quoting Ex parte Peru, 318 U.S. 578, 587, 63 S.Ct. 793, 87 L.Ed. 1014 (1943)). At this second step, the court will grant immunity if "the ground of immunity is one which it is the established policy of the [State Department] to recognize." Id. at 312, 130 S.Ct. 2278 (quoting Republic of Mex. v. Hoffman, 324 U.S. 30, 36, 65 S.Ct. 530, 89 L.Ed. 729 (1945)).

At the second step of foreign official immunity, courts distinguish between status-based immunity and conduct-based immunity. "Status-based immunity is reserved for diplomats and heads of state and attaches `regardless of the substance of the claim.'" Lewis v. Mutond, 918 F.3d 142, 145 (D.C. Cir. 2019) (quoting Chimène I. Keitner, The Common Law of Foreign Official Immunity, 14 Green Bag 2d 61, 64 (2010)). "Conduct-based immunity is afforded to `any [] [p]ublic minister, official, or agent of the state with respect to acts performed in his official capacity if the effect of exercising jurisdiction would be to enforce a rule of law against the state.'" Id. (alterations in original) (quoting Restatement (Second) of Foreign Relations Law § 66(f) (1965) ("Restatement")); accord Doğan v. Barak, 932 F.3d 888, 894 (9th Cir. 2019). While the Supreme Court "expressed no view on whether Restatement § 66 correctly sets out the scope of common-law immunity applicable to current or former foreign officials," Samantar, 560 U.S. at 321 n.15, 130 S.Ct. 2278, in Doğan v. Barak, 932 F.3d at 893-94, the Ninth Circuit cited with approval Restatement § 66 to determine conduct-based immunity. Restatement § 66 provides a three factor test for such immunity: "First, whether the actor is a public minister, official, or agent of the foreign state. Second, whether the acts were performed in her official capacity. And third, whether exercising jurisdiction would serve to enforce a rule of law against the foreign state." Lewis, 918 F.3d at 146.

Here, defendants do not argue that the U.S. State Department has issued them a suggestion of immunity or that 665*665 status-based immunity is available to them. Instead, they contend that conduct-based foreign sovereign immunity applies to a foreign sovereign's private agents when the agent acts on behalf of the state and that this standard applies to their conduct on behalf of foreign sovereigns.[1] Reply at 10.

With respect to the first factor, plaintiffs do not contest that defendants are agents of foreign governments; indeed, the complaint alleges that defendants' customers include the Kingdom of Bahrain, the United Arab Emirates, and Mexico. Compl. ¶ 43. With respect to the second factor, defendants argue that foreign states used defendants' technology to fight terrorism and serious crime, which are official public acts. Mtn. at 9 n.9. Plaintiffs do not contend that defendants were acting outside the scope of their contracts with their customers, though they take issue with the idea that attacks on journalists and attorneys is consistent with fighting terrorism and crime. Opp. at 4 n.2. Regardless of the character of the governments' actions, no argument is made that defendants operated outside their official capacity.

With regard to the third factor, plaintiffs argue that a judgment enjoining NSO from creating or using accounts with WhatsApp would bind only NSO and that a monetary judgment would not be paid from a foreign state's coffers. Opp. at 6. Defendants do not directly address whether exercising jurisdiction would enforce a rule of law against a foreign state. However, in the context of their Rule 12(b)(7) motion to dismiss for failure to join necessary parties, defendants argue that, because defendants' customers were the entities that accessed plaintiffs' services, injunctive relief would necessarily bind those sovereign nations. Mtn. at 19.

In Lewis, 918 F.3d at 147, the D.C. Circuit, in evaluating the third factor, reasoned that the defendants in that case failed to demonstrate that the plaintiff sought "to draw on the [foreign state's] treasury or force the state to take specific action, as would be the case if the judgment were enforceable against the state. Defendants in this case are being sued in their individual capacities and Plaintiff [did] not seek[] compensation out of state funds." Applying here, defendants have not argued that any of their foreign sovereign customers would be forced to pay a judgment against defendants if plaintiffs were to prevail in this lawsuit. Plaintiffs also request injunctive relief against defendants "and all other persons acting in concert or conspiracy with any of them or who are affiliated with" defendants. Compl., Request for Relief. This issue is addressed in greater depth with respect to defendants' 12(b)(7) motion, but, briefly, the court can craft injunctive relief that does not require a foreign sovereign to take an affirmative action. Thus, plaintiffs do not seek to enforce a rule of law against defendants' customers.

For the foregoing reasons, defendants do not qualify as foreign officials under the content-based prong of the foreign official immunity test.

b. Derivative Sovereign Immunity

Next, defendants argue that the court should apply the derivative sovereign immunity doctrine articulated by the Fourth Circuit in Butters v. Vance International, 666*666 Inc., 225 F.3d at 466. That case involved a suit by a U.S. employee against her employer, a U.S. corporation. Id. at 464. The employer provided "security services to corporations and foreign sovereigns," specifically to the wife of the king of Saudi Arabia while she was undergoing medical treatment in California. Id. The employee was employed to provide security services but, because of the religious beliefs of the Saudi entourage, was not permitted to work in the command post and eventually filed a gender discrimination suit against her employer. Id.

On appeal, the Fourth Circuit determined that the U.S. company could assert derivative sovereign immunity. Id. at 466. The court cited Yearsley v. W.A. Ross Construction Co., 309 U.S. 18, 21-22, 60 S.Ct. 413, 84 L.Ed. 554 (1940), for the proposition that "contractors and common law agents acting within the scope of their employment for the United States have derivative sovereign immunity." Id. (emphasis added). The court then extended the rule of derivative sovereign immunity to American private agents of foreign governments:

It is but a small step to extend this privilege to the private agents of foreign governments. All sovereigns need flexibility to hire private agents to aid them in conducting their governmental functions. This is especially true for foreign sovereigns given their lack of human resources while operating within the United States. To abrogate immunity would discourage American companies from entering lawful agreements with foreign governments and from respecting their wishes even as to sovereign acts.

Id.

Plaintiffs argue that the court should not apply Butters because no court in this circuit has extended derivative domestic sovereign immunity to work performed for foreign sovereigns. Opp. at 4. They also argue that Samantar effectively abrogated Butters' holding because Butters cited and relied on the FSIA to extend sovereign immunity to a private entity working for a foreign sovereign. Id. at 6. In response, defendants contend that Butters remains good law and compare the facts here to Yearsley where a contractor's performance was "authorized and directed" by the government. Reply at 10-11 (quoting Yearsley, 309 U.S. at 20, 60 S.Ct. 413).

The court need not decide whether Samantar abrogated Butters because Butters is neither controlling nor persuasive authority. Significantly, as plaintiffs note, the Ninth Circuit has not held that the doctrine of derivative sovereign immunity applies to the foreign contractors of foreign sovereigns.[2] Nor is it clear that the circuit would do so because, as the district court in Broidy Capital Management LLC v. Muzin, No. 19-CV-0150 (DLF), 2020 WL 1536350, at *7 667*667 (D.D.C. Mar. 31, 2020), pointed out, there are different rationales underlying domestic and foreign sovereign immunity. Foreign sovereign immunity is "a matter of grace and comity on the part of the United States, and not a restriction imposed by the Constitution." Verlinden B.V. v. Central Bank of Nigeria, 461 U.S. 480, 486, 103 S.Ct. 1962, 76 L.Ed.2d 81 (1983). Conversely, domestic derivative sovereign immunity stems from a valid exercise of constitutional authority where the contractor does not exceed such authority. Yearsley, 309 U.S. at 20-21, 60 S.Ct. 413 ("[I]t is clear that if this authority to carry out the project was validly conferred, that is, if what was done was within the constitutional power of Congress, there is no liability on the part of the contractor for executing its will."). Moreover, the Supreme Court has cautioned that while "`government contractors obtain certain immunity in connection with work which they do pursuant to their contractual undertakings with the United States[,]' ... [t]hat immunity,... unlike the sovereign's, is not absolute." Campbell-Ewald Co. v. Gomez, 577 U.S. 153, 136 S. Ct. 663, 672, 193 L.Ed.2d 571 (2016) (quoting Brady v. Roosevelt S.S. Co., 317 U.S. 575, 583, 63 S.Ct. 425, 87 L.Ed. 471 (1943)). In light of these divergent doctrines and the lack of controlling authority, there is no compelling reason to extend derivative sovereign immunity to a foreign entity working on behalf of a foreign sovereign.

Even if the court were to apply Butters as persuasive authority, defendants fail to meet its standard because they are not incorporated or formed in the United States. In Butters, the defendant asserting derivative sovereign immunity was a U.S. corporation and the Fourth Circuit's reasoning indicated that the U.S. citizenship of the company was necessary to its holding. 225 F.3d at 466 ("To abrogate immunity would discourage American companies from entering lawful agreements with foreign governments and from respecting their wishes even as to sovereign acts." (emphasis added)). None of the other cases cited by defendants involve the application of derivative sovereign immunity to foreign entities.[3] E.g., Ivey for Carolina Golf Dev. Co. v. Lynch, No. 1:17CV439, 2018 WL 3764264, at *7 (M.D.N.C. Aug. 8, 2018) (applying Butters to find that United States citizen acting as agent of foreign sovereign was immune); see also Broidy Capital Mgmt. LLC v. Muzin, No. 19-CV-0150 (DLF), 2020 WL 1536350, at *6 (D.D.C. Mar. 31, 2020) (recognizing Butters, Ivey, and Alicog v. Kingdom of Saudi Arabia, 860 F. Supp. 379, 384 (S.D. Tex. 1994), as cases "in which courts have extended foreign sovereign immunity to U.S. citizens").

Accordingly, the doctrine of derivative domestic sovereign immunity is not applicable to defendants. For the foregoing reasons, defendants' motion to dismiss for lack of subject matter jurisdiction is DENIED.

2. Personal Jurisdiction

a. Consent

Defendants argue that they have not consented to personal jurisdiction by accepting WhatsApp's terms of service. 668*668 Mtn. at 11. The Ninth Circuit has recognized that accepting a forum selection clause evidences consent to personal jurisdiction in that forum. SEC v. Ross, 504 F.3d 1130, 1149 (9th Cir. 2007) (citing Nat'l Equip. Rental, Ltd. v. Szukhent, 375 U.S. 311, 315-16, 84 S.Ct. 411, 11 L.Ed.2d 354 (1964); and Dow Chem. Co. v. Calderon, 422 F.3d 827, 831 (9th Cir. 2005)). Forum selection clauses are presumptively valid, M/S Bremen v. Zapata Off-Shore Co., 407 U.S. 1, 10, 92 S.Ct. 1907, 32 L.Ed.2d 513 (1972), and courts "apply federal law to the interpretation of the forum selection clause." Doe 1 v. AOL LLC, 552 F.3d 1077, 1081 (9th Cir. 2009) (citing Manetti-Farrow, Inc. v. Gucci Am., Inc., 858 F.2d 509, 513 (9th Cir. 1988)).

"Contract terms are to be given their ordinary meaning, and when the terms of a contract are clear, the intent of the parties must be ascertained from the contract itself. Whenever possible, the plain language of the contract should be considered first." Klamath Water Users Protective Ass'n v. Patterson, 204 F.3d 1206, 1210 (9th Cir. 1999). A contract is interpreted as a whole and each part is interpreted with reference to the whole. Id. "A primary rule of interpretation is `[t]hat the common or normal meaning of language will be given to the words of a contract unless circumstances show that in a particular case a special meaning should be attached to it.'" Hunt Wesson Foods, Inc. v. Supreme Oil Co., 817 F.2d 75, 77 (9th Cir. 1987) (quoting 4 Williston, A Treatise on the Law of Contracts, § 618 (W. Jaeger 3d ed. 1961)).

Here, the forum selection clause in WhatsApp's terms of service that were in effect at the time of the alleged conduct provided:

If you are not subject to the "Special Arbitration Provision for United States or Canada Users" section below, you agree that you will resolve any Claim you have with us relating to, arising out of, or in any way in connection with our Terms, us, or our Services (each, a "Dispute," and together, "Disputes") exclusively in the United States District Court for the Northern District of California or a state court located in San Mateo County in California, and you agree to submit to the personal jurisdiction of such courts for the purpose of litigating all such Disputes.

Declaration of Joseph N. Akrotirianakis ("Akro. Decl."), Ex. 6, Dkt. 45-7, at 9; Declaration of Michael P. Duffy ("Duffy Decl."), Ex. 1, Dkt. 55-4, at 4. As defined earlier in the terms of service, "us" is defined as WhatsApp and "you" is not defined but appears to refer to the counterparty accepting the terms of service, i.e., the user. Duffy Decl., Ex. 1 at 2.

Defendants do not argue that the terms of service are unreasonable, unjust, or otherwise inapplicable to them. Instead, they contend that the present litigation does not fall within the defined term "Dispute" because a dispute involves "any Claim you have with us," which would not apply to claims WhatsApp has with its users. Mtn. at 11-12. Plaintiffs contend that the better reading of that phrase would include any claim between WhatsApp and its users, regardless of who initiated the claim. Opp. at 11.

The question here is whether the parties to the terms of service intended for the definition of the term "Dispute" to apply as a one-way street, i.e., a user filing a claim against WhatsApp, or a two-way street, either a user or WhatsApp filing a claim against the other. By creating a parenthetical with the word "Dispute," WhatsApp defined that term in reference to the sentence preceding the parenthetical. In relevant part, the term "Dispute" means "any Claim you have with us relating to, arising out of, or in any way in connection 669*669 with our Terms, us, or our Services." The common or normal meaning of the word "have" in the phrase "any Claim you have with us" is as a transitive verb meaning "to hold or maintain as a possession, privilege, or entitlement." Merriam-Webster Dictionary, https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/have (last visited June 22, 2020). In the phrase "any Claim you have with us," the subject that has "any Claim" is "you," not "us." Thus, the entity holding or maintaining the claim as a possession, privilege, or entitlement is the user not WhatsApp. Reading the foregoing together, the ordinary meaning of the term "Dispute" is that a user holds in possession any claim against WhatsApp and not that WhatsApp possesses a claim against a user.

Plaintiffs argue that the court should read the choice of law provision to interpret the way in which the term "Dispute" is read in the forum selection clause. The choice of law provision states: "The laws of the State of California govern our Terms, as well as any Disputes, whether in court or arbitration, which might arise between WhatsApp and you, without regard to conflict of law provisions." Duffy Decl., Ex. 1 at 4. The phrase "any Disputes ... between WhatsApp and you" indicates that it applies to a dispute shared by or common to the parties. It is notable that WhatsApp chose to use "between" in the choice of law provision but not the forum selection clause. Had WhatsApp intended to provide for claims initiated by either a user or by WhatsApp, WhatsApp could have (but did not) use the term "between" when defining the term "dispute." Additionally, the choice of law provision uses the defined term "Disputes," which indicates that the definition from the forum selection clause should simply be applied in the choice of law provision but not that the term accumulates an additional meaning (i.e., between) because of the choice of law provision.

Accordingly, the terms of service's forum selection clause do not apply to claims initiated by WhatsApp against its users and, therefore, defendants did not consent to personal jurisdiction.

b. Specific Jurisdiction

Plaintiffs contend that the court should exercise specific jurisdiction over defendants under both a purposeful direction theory (based on their tort claims) and a purposeful availment theory (based on their contract claim). Opp. at 12.

i. Purposeful Direction

Under the Calder effects test, plaintiffs must show that defendants (1) committed an intentional act, (2) expressly aimed at the forum state, (3) caused harm that the defendant knew was likely to be suffered in the forum state. Calder v. Jones, 465 U.S. 783, 789-90, 104 S.Ct. 1482, 79 L.Ed.2d 804 (1984).

With regard to the first element, plaintiffs have identified the intentional act as the targeting of WhatsApp's systems and servers by defendants to disseminate malicious code and malware. Opp. at 14. Defendants contend that they did not commit the intentional act in question; instead, foreign governments committed the intentional acts and have submitted a declaration to that effect. Mtn. at 14. Plaintiffs respond that the court cannot accept defendants' contention at the pleading stage. Opp. at 14 n.11.

For purposes of personal jurisdiction, there does not appear to be any dispute that someone sent malicious code and malware through WhatsApp's servers, accessed WhatsApp's servers without authorization, and sent unauthorized commands to WhatsApp's computers. Rather the dispute concerns whether defendants' evidence demonstrates that someone other than defendants committed the intentional act. Plaintiffs allege that defendants accessed 670*670 WhatsApp's computers and servers and user's devices without authorization. Compl. ¶¶ 54, 60. To rebut those allegations, defendants offer the declaration of Shalev Hulio, NSO's CEO and co-founder, wherein he declares that "NSO markets and licenses the Pegasus technology to its sovereign customers, which then operate the technology themselves ...." Hulio Decl. ¶ 14. "Defendants role is limited to NSO providing advice and technical support to assist customers in setting up— not operating—the Pegasus technology." Id.

Two points limit the persuasiveness of the declaration. First, the declaration itself leaves open the possibility of defendants' involvement in the intentional act because Hulio qualifies his statement on defendants' limited advice and technical support role by stating "[w]hen Defendants provide those support services, they do so entirely at the direction of their government customers, and Defendants follow those directions completely." Id. Thus, it appears defendants retained some role in conducting the intentional act, even if it was at the direction of their customers. Second, the complaint goes beyond the statements in the Hulio declaration because plaintiffs allege that defendants designed and manufactured a program to exploit WhatsApp's app, servers, and infrastructure. At this stage, the boundary between defendants' conduct and their clients' conduct is not clearly delineated or definitively resolved by the Hulio declaration. Because the court resolves conflicts in affidavits in plaintiffs' favor and plaintiffs only need to demonstrate that they have established a prima facie showing of jurisdictional facts, Mavrix Photo, 647 F.3d at 1223, plaintiffs have sufficiently demonstrated that defendants committed an intentional act.

The second element "asks whether the defendant's allegedly tortious action was `expressly aimed at the forum.'" Picot, 780 F.3d at 1214 (quoting Brayton Purcell LLP v. Recordon & Recordon, 606 F.3d 1124, 1129 (9th Cir. 2010), abrogated on other grounds by Walden, 571 U.S. 277, 134 S.Ct. 1115). "The `express aiming' analysis depends, to a significant degree, on the specific type of tort at issue." Schwarzenegger v. Fred Martin Motor Co., 374 F.3d 797, 807 (9th Cir. 2004). The alleged torts in the complaint center on the improper access to and misuse of WhatsApp's application, servers, and network.

Defendants advance several arguments why plaintiffs fail to show express aiming, including a lack of allegations that the leased, third-party servers are located in California and, if they are in California, courts have rejected the argument that the mere location of a server may give rise to personal jurisdiction. Mtn. at 14. Further, the complaint does not allege that any of defendants' code was routed through WhatsApp's servers located in California or that they even have California servers. Id. at 14-15. Defendants also argue that the contact created between an out-of-state defendant and a server is de minimis. Id. at 15. In response, plaintiffs argue that defendants' acts targeted a California-based company and used WhatsApp's and third-party QuadraNet's California-based servers. Opp. at 14-15. Plaintiffs distinguish the cases cited by defendants on the grounds that they dealt with incidental access to third-party servers rather than intentional targeting of WhatsApp's California-based servers. Id. at 15. Plaintiffs also point to marketing by a U.S.-based advertising arm that advertised defendants' ability to target WhatsApp. Id.

Much of the express aiming argument centers on the role of computer servers. There are two categories of servers at issue in the personal jurisdiction analysis: third-party servers that were leased by defendants for the alleged purpose of transmitting malware from the leased server 671*671 to a user's phone (Compl. ¶ 34) and WhatApp's signaling and relay servers through which defendants routed malicious code to a user's phone (id. ¶ 36). The servers leased by defendants were owned by third parties such as Choopa, QuadraNet, and Amazon Web Services and located in different countries, including the United States. Id. ¶ 34. The complaint does not allege any of these third-party servers are located in California, but declarations attached to plaintiffs' opposition brief aver that QuadraNet is a California-based company with California-based servers. Dkt. 55-1 ¶¶ 3-5; Dkt. 55-6 ¶¶ 2-4, Exs. 1-5.

With respect to the leased third-party servers, plaintiffs have not demonstrated that defendants expressly aimed their conduct at the forum state. As other district courts have noted, "the mere location of a third party or its servers is insufficient to give rise to personal jurisdiction." Hungerstation LLC v. Fast Choice LLC, No. 19-CV-05861-HSG, 2020 WL 137160, at *5 (N.D. Cal. Jan. 13, 2020) (collecting cases). Plaintiffs have identified one third party, QuadraNet, that allegedly leased servers, located in California, to defendants.[4] Defendants filed a supplemental declaration[5] with their reply brief that expressly denies that defendants contracted with QuadraNet for use of servers. Dkt. 62-1, ¶ 3. This supplemental declaration casts doubt on the fact that defendants used the QuadraNet servers in California. Even without the declaration, the connection between defendants and any leased server located in California is fortuitous. Neither party controlled where the third parties placed their servers and the servers were not the ultimate target of the intentional act. The leased servers were utilized to send malware and other commands to users' devices but not WhatsApp's servers. Yet, these users are not alleged to be located in California.

With respect to the location of WhatsApp's relay and signaling servers, two critical facts are relevant. First, the servers in question are not owned by third parties but are WhatsApp's own servers and, contrary to defendants' contention in their motion, plaintiffs allege that at least some of those servers were located in California. Compl. ¶ 60 ("Defendants knowingly and without permission used and caused to be used WhatsApp Signaling Servers and Relay Servers, including servers located in California, in violation of California Penal Code § 502(c)(3)." (emphasis added)). Defendants have not controverted the allegation that WhatsApp's servers were located in California and the court accepts the allegation as true. Second, defendants are alleged to have targeted WhatsApp's signaling and relay servers and caused malicious code to be routed through those servers. Id. ¶ 36 ("WhatsApp's Signaling Servers facilitated the initiation of calls between different devices using the WhatsApp Service. WhatsApp's Relay Servers facilitated certain data transmissions over the WhatsApp Service."). These allegations 672*672 indicate that defendants' program sought out specific servers—including servers in California—in order to transmit malicious code through those servers.

Because defendants are alleged to have targeted WhatsApp's own servers, this case is distinguishable from Hungerstation LLC, 2020 WL 137160, at *5, and Rosen v. Terapeak, Inc., No. CV-15-00112-MWF (EX), 2015 WL 12724071, at *9 (C.D. Cal. Apr. 28, 2015), where the servers in question were incidental to the alleged conduct and owned by third parties. Instead, this case is similar to Seattle Sperm Bank, LLC v. Cryobank Am., LLC, No. C17-1487 RAJ, 2018 WL 3769803, at *1 (W.D. Wash. Aug. 9, 2018), where former employees, located in Phoenix, of the Seattle-based plaintiff were alleged to have "copied 10 folders onto a removable hard drive .... contain[ing] more than 1,500 documents.... These materials were housed on a server in Seattle, Washington." The court went on to reason that

[d]efendants worked for a company whose principal place of business in Seattle, Washington, a fact that they had knowledge of, as Defendants attest that Blaine interviewed for his job there and Kumar had his initial training there. [The defendant employees] downloaded the allegedly misappropriated information from servers located in Seattle, Washington. Not only is Plaintiff headquartered in Seattle, but Defendants' actions allegedly caused harm likely to be suffered in Washington.

Id. at *2 (citation omitted).

Here, similar to Seattle Sperm Bank, defendants sought out and accessed plaintiffs' servers.[6] Defendants are alleged to have reverse-engineered the WhatsApp app and developed a program that emulated legitimate WhatsApp network traffic in order to transmit malicious code over WhatsApp servers. Compl. ¶ 35. This indicates a knowledge of how WhatsApp's servers worked and where they were located such that defendants could exploit WhatsApp's servers for their own use and the use of their customers.

In their reply brief, defendants argue that, even if WhatsApp had servers in California and NSO sent messages through those servers, there is no allegation or argument that NSO selected the location of the server. Reply at 6. In other words, defendants contend the location of the server is fortuitous and their claims would have been the same if the servers were located in Cleveland, Paris, or Timbuktu. Id. at 7. The express aiming prong depends on the type of tort alleged, Picot, 780 F.3d at 1214, and here plaintiffs allege that defendants targeted and accessed WhatsApp's servers without authorization. The location of the servers is, therefore, not a fortuity but central to the alleged tortious conduct. For example, courts have analogized a CFAA cause of action to digital "breaking and entering" and a "trespass offense" hiQ Labs, Inc. v. LinkedIn Corp., 938 F.3d 985, 1001 (9th Cir. 2019) (citations omitted), similar to the common law trespass to chattels offense alleged. By sending malicious code to the California based servers, defendants allegedly caused a digital transmission to enter California, which then effectuated a breaking and entering of a server in California. Cf. Picot, 673*673 780 F.3d at 1215 (concluding personal jurisdiction not appropriate in California where the defendant interfered with a contract "without entering California, contacting any person in California, or otherwise reaching out to California").

Finally, defendants argue that even if defendants targeted plaintiffs and knew plaintiffs to be California residents, plaintiffs have not shown defendants targeted California. Mtn. at 13-14. Defendants are correct to note that plaintiffs cannot rely on a theory of individualized targeting. Prior to Walden v. Fiore, courts in this circuit found the express aiming element to be satisfied where a defendant knew of the plaintiff's connection to the forum and there was a foreseeable harm to the plaintiff. See, e.g., Amini Innovation Corp. v. JS Imports, Inc., 497 F. Supp. 2d 1093, 1105 (C.D. Cal. 2007). As the Ninth Circuit's opinion in Axiom Foods, Inc. v. Acerchem International, Inc., 874 F.3d 1064, 1069-70 (9th Cir. 2017), held, Walden requires more than knowledge of a plaintiff's forum connections combined with the foreseeable harm that plaintiffs suffered in the forum. This holding effectively abrogated any individualized targeting theory. Rather, a court "must look to the defendant's `own contacts' with the forum, not to the defendant's knowledge of a plaintiff's connections to a forum." Id. at 1070 (quoting Walden, 571 U.S. at 289, 134 S.Ct. 1115). "Calder made clear that mere injury to a forum resident is not a sufficient connection to the forum.... The proper question is not where the plaintiff experienced a particular injury or effect but whether the defendant's conduct connects him to the forum in a meaningful way."[7] Walden, 571 U.S. at 290, 134 S.Ct. 1115.

Applying here, it is clear that the alleged conduct goes beyond defendants' knowledge that plaintiffs are located in California and would suffer harm in California. The complaint avers that defendants sought out WhatsApp's California-based servers for the purpose of routing malicious code through those servers to ultimately reach individual users' phones. By sending the malicious code, defendants electronically entered the forum state seeking out plaintiffs' servers, which were a necessary component to transmit the malicious code to the users. Defendants created a connection with the forum beyond an individualized targeting theory. Accordingly, plaintiffs have demonstrated that defendants expressly aimed their intentional act at the forum state.

The third element of the Calder effects test is whether the defendants caused harm that they knew would likely be suffered in the forum state. Defendants do not offer any argument as to this element. Plaintiffs have alleged that defendants harmed them by interfering with the WhatsApp service and burdening their network and have injured plaintiffs' reputation, public trust, and goodwill. Compl. ¶¶ 46-47. If defendants did access plaintiffs' servers without authorization (or exceeded authorized access), then they would have known they were harming plaintiffs. 674*674 See id., Ex. 10 at 33 (product description naming Facebook and WhatsApp as applications to be monitored). Defendants also knew that such harm would be suffered in California; for example, the Hulio declaration states that Facebook contacted NSO to inquire about certain capabilities of Pegasus, indicating that defendants were well aware of plaintiffs and their principal place of business in California. Hulio Decl. ¶ 10. Therefore, plaintiffs have demonstrated the purposeful direction element of specific jurisdiction. For that reason, the court does not reach plaintiffs' argument that the court has jurisdiction under Rule 4(k)(2).

ii. Purposeful Availment

A prima facie showing of purposeful availment "typically consists of evidence of the defendant's actions in the forum, such as executing or performing a contract there. By taking such actions, a defendant `purposefully avails itself of the privilege of conducting activities within the forum State, thus invoking the benefits and protections of its laws.'" Schwarzenegger, 374 F.3d at 802 (quoting Hanson, 357 U.S. at 253, 78 S.Ct. 1228). When analyzing purposeful availment, the court must "use a highly realistic approach that recognizes that a contract is ordinarily but an intermediate step serving to tie up prior business negotiations with future consequences which themselves are the real object of the business transaction." Burger King, 471 U.S. at 479, 105 S.Ct. 2174 (internal quotation marks and citation omitted). Generally, an individual's contract with an out-of-state party alone cannot establish sufficient minimum contracts. Id. at 478, 105 S.Ct. 2174. "To have purposefully availed itself of the privilege of doing business in the forum, a defendant must have `performed some type of affirmative conduct which allows or promotes the transaction of business within the forum state.'" Boschetto v. Hansing, 539 F.3d 1011, 1016 (9th Cir. 2008) (quoting Sher v. Johnson, 911 F.2d 1357, 1362 (9th Cir. 1990)). Courts examine the "prior negotiations and contemplated future consequences, along with the terms of the contract and the parties' actual course of dealing" that "determin[e] whether the defendant purposefully established minimum contacts with the forum." Burger King, 471 U.S. at 479, 105 S.Ct. 2174.

Defendants argue that plaintiffs cannot demonstrate purposeful availment because defendants did not take any actions in the forum, such as executing or performing a contract in California. Mtn. at 16. While defendants acknowledge they accepted the terms of service, they contend a contract alone does not establish minimum contacts and there are no other allegations of affirmative conduct in California. Id. Plaintiffs argue that defendants purposefully availed themselves of California's benefits for three reasons. First, the terms of service included a California choice-of-law clause, which shows an intent by defendants to avail themselves of California law. Opp. at 12. Second, defendants continuously performed under the terms of service. Id. at 12-13. Third, defendants engaged in activities directed at California such as developing Pegasus with financing from a California-based private equity firm and contracting with a California-based technology company, QuadraNet. Id. at 13.

Beginning with prior negotiations, there is no allegation or evidence that the parties engaged in prior negotiations. Nor would one expect there to be any negotiations because terms of service are contracts of adhesion that users choose to either accept or reject based on whether they desire to use a company's service. Next, the contemplated performance does not center on California. WhatsApp's terms of service apply to every user no matter where they are located. As plaintiffs point out, the terms of service committed defendants to 675*675 continuously perform under the contract, but nothing about that performance had anything to do with California—especially in this instance where defendants are not alleged to have traveled to or otherwise performed in California after they agreed to the terms of service.

With respect to the terms of the contract, plaintiffs point to the choice-of-law provision in the terms of service. That provision stated: "[t]he laws of the State of California govern our Terms, as well as any Disputes, whether in court or arbitration, which might arise between WhatsApp and you, without regard to conflict of law provisions." Duffy Decl., Ex. 1. WhatsApp's choice of law provision would be relevant if it were combined with other facts to demonstrate that defendants purposefully availed themselves of California law. In Google, Inc. v. Eolas Technologies Inc., No. 13-cv-05997-JST, 2014 WL 2916621, at *3 (N.D. Cal. June 24, 2014), the court found the choice of law provision persuasive in the context of a 20-year licensing agreement whereby the defendant entered into the agreement in California, was formerly a California entity, and agreed to ongoing marketing, litigation, and bookkeeping obligations as part of a patent royalty agreement. Similarly, in Facebook, Inc. v. Rankwave Co., No. 19-cv-03738-JST, 2019 WL 8895237, at *6 (N.D. Cal. Nov. 14, 2019), the court assumed that the defendant, as a "sophisticated entity... consented to the [terms of service] and its choice-of-law provision for seven of the years during which it created and operated apps on Facebook's platform." Thus, the choice of law provision may be relevant but only when combined with other facts that defendants intended to avail themselves of California law.

There are no such facts here. This case involves a contract of adhesion where defendants, despite being sophisticated entities, had no ability to negotiate the terms of service. Unlike Eolas (licensing agreement) and Rankwave (creating apps), defendants were only using WhatsApp's service as any individual consumer might. If the court were to accept plaintiffs' argument, then any user simply by accepting the terms of service and otherwise having no interaction with California could be said to have purposefully availed him or herself of California's laws.

Plaintiffs advance a few other arguments that involve conduct outside the four corners of the terms of service. First, defendants are alleged to have received financing from a California-based private equity firm. From 2014 to February 2019, a San Francisco-based entity owned a controlling interest in NSO. Compl. ¶ 5 & Ex. 4. This fact represents a potential connection with California, but plaintiffs have not connected it to the WhatsApp terms of service, the alleged conduct (which occurred after Q Cyber acquired NSO), or that the funding was instrumental to the alleged conduct. Second, plaintiffs argue that defendants intentionally exploited WhatsApp's California-based infrastructure. This allegation is relevant to the purposeful direction test but is not relevant to purposeful availment. Third, plaintiffs point to defendants' contract with QuadraNet to use QuadraNet's servers to direct malware to WhatsApp's users. Defendants have denied this fact in a supplemental declaration. Nor is it clear how a contract with a third party informs the purposeful availment analysis concerning the terms of service agreed to by WhatsApp and defendants.

In sum, plaintiffs have not met their burden to demonstrate purposeful availment. Because, however, plaintiffs have met their burden with respect to purposeful direction, the court turns to whether exercising personal jurisdiction would comport with fair play and substantial justice.

676*676 

iii. Reasonableness and Pendent Jurisdiction

The factors that are relevant to the fair play and substantial justice evaluation are: "(1) the extent of the defendants' purposeful injection into the forum state's affairs; (2) the burden on the defendant of defending in the forum; (3) the extent of the conflict with the sovereignty of the defendant's state; (4) the forum state's interest in adjudicating the dispute; (5) the most efficient judicial resolution of the controversy; (6) the importance of the forum to the plaintiff's interest in convenient and effective relief; and (7) the existence of an alternative forum." College-Source, 653 F.3d at 1079. No one factor is dispositive and the court must balance all of the factors. Core-Vent Corp. v. Nobel Indus., AB, 11 F.3d 1482, 1488 (9th Cir. 1993). The more attenuated the contacts with the forum state, the less a defendant must show in terms of unreasonableness to defeat the court's exercise of jurisdiction. Id. At this step of the specific jurisdiction analysis, the burden shifts to defendants to present a compelling case that jurisdiction would be unreasonable. Burger King, 471 U.S. at 477, 105 S.Ct. 2174.

First, the purposeful injection factor is analogous to the purposeful direction analysis. Corp. Inv. Bus. Brokers v. Melcher, 824 F.2d 786, 790 (9th Cir. 1987) ("Ninth Circuit cases give the `purposeful interjectment' factor no weight once it is shown that the defendant purposefully directed its activities to the forum state ...." (citations omitted)). Because plaintiffs demonstrated purposeful direction, defendants injected themselves into the forum state.

Second, courts "examine the burden on the defendant in light of the corresponding burden on the plaintiff." Sinatra v. Nat'l Enquirer, Inc., 854 F.2d 1191, 1199 (9th Cir. 1988) (quoting Brand v. Menlove Dodge, 796 F.2d 1070, 1075 (9th Cir. 1986)). Here, the burden on defendants to litigate in California is substantial given that their witnesses and evidence are located in Israel. However, the burden on plaintiffs to litigate in Israel would be similarly burdensome as their witnesses and evidence are located in California. Defendants have also secured U.S.-based outside counsel and a U.S.-based public relations firm for the express purpose of this lawsuit (Dkt. 20-6), which indicates the burden is somewhat mitigated. Further, given the advances in technology, it is not clear that the burden of litigating is so great as to violate due process. See Sinatra, 854 F.2d at 1199 (observing, in 1988, that "modern advances in communications and transportation have significantly reduced the burden of litigating in another country" (citations omitted)). In sum, this factor is in equipoise.

Third, "conflict with the sovereignty of the defendant's state `is not dispositive because, if given controlling weight, it would always prevent suit against a foreign national in a United States court.'" Id. (quoting Gates Learjet Corp. v. Jensen, 743 F.2d 1325, 1333 (9th Cir. 1984)). "The Supreme Court, though, has cautioned against extending state long arm statutes in an international context." Id. (citing Asahi Metal Indus. Co. v. Superior Ct. of Cal., Solano Cty., 480 U.S. 102, 115, 107 S.Ct. 1026, 94 L.Ed.2d 92 (1987)). Here, while defendants have presented no evidence as to a particular interest, the state of Israel has some presumable interest in adjudicating conflicts concerning their corporate citizens. See Harris Rutsky & Co. Ins. Servs. v. Bell & Clements Ltd., 328 F.3d 1122, 1133 (9th Cir. 2003) ("While [defendant] has presented no evidence of the United Kingdom's particular interest in adjudicating this suit, we may presume for present purposes that there is such an interest."). This factor cuts in favor of defendants.

677*677 Fourth, California maintains a strong interest in providing an effective means of redress for its residents tortuously injured in California. Sinatra, 854 F.2d at 1200. Here, plaintiffs' principal places of business are Menlo Park, California and they were allegedly harmed in California. This factor militates in favor of exercising jurisdiction.

Fifth, in considering which forum could most efficiently resolve this dispute, courts "focus on the location of the evidence and witnesses." Harris Rutsky, 328 F.3d at 1133 (citing Caruth v. Int'l Psychoanalytical Ass'n, 59 F.3d 126, 129 (9th Cir. 1995)). Here, defendants' evidence and witnesses are located in Israel and plaintiffs' evidence and witnesses are in California. This factor is neutral especially given the advances of modern technology. See Panavision Int'l v. Toeppen, 141 F.3d 1316, 1323 (9th Cir. 1998) (noting factor is "no longer weighed heavily given the modern advances in communication and transportation" (citation omitted)).

Sixth, "[i]n evaluating the convenience and effectiveness of relief for the plaintiff, we have given little weight to the plaintiff's inconvenience." Id. at 1324 (citing Ziegler v. Indian River Cty., 64 F.3d 470, 476 (9th Cir. 1995)). Here, the maintenance of this suit in a foreign country would be inconvenient for plaintiffs. This factor tips in plaintiffs' favor, though only slightly.

Seventh, the parties dispute which party has the burden to show Israel is inadequate as an alternative forum. Defendants cite Ballard v. Savage, 65 F.3d 1495, 1502 (9th Cir. 1995), where the Ninth Circuit stated that the defendant "Royal claims that an Austrian court could hear [the plaintiff's] claims, but it presents absolutely no evidence on this issue, erroneously assuming that the burden is on [the plaintiff] to prove the lack of an alternate forum." Ballard cites no authority for the proposition that the defendant must prove lack of alternate forum. In contrast, defendants cite Amoco Egypt Oil Co. v. Leonis Navigation Co., where the court stated that the plaintiff "Amoco has the burden of proving the unavailability of an alternative forum." 1 F.3d 848, 853 (9th Cir. 1993) (citing Pac. Atl. Trading Co. v. M/V Main Exp., 758 F.2d 1325, 1331 (9th Cir. 1985)). Both Sinatra, 854 F.2d at 1201, and Harris Rutsky, 328 F.3d at 1134, cases decided before and after Ballard, hold that the burden is on plaintiffs to prove unavailability. The weight of authority holds that plaintiffs have the burden on this factor and they have not cited any evidence that Israel is not an available alternative forum whereas defendants cite several cases finding Israel to be an available forum. E.g., Israel Discount Bank Ltd. v. Schapp, 505 F. Supp. 2d 651, 659 (C.D. Cal. 2007). This factor points towards defendants.

In sum, some factors tip in defendants' favor and others tip in plaintiffs' favor. The Ninth Circuit has indicated that, in such an instance, a defendant has not carried its burden to present a compelling case that exercising jurisdiction would be unreasonable. See Harris Rutsky, 328 F.3d at 1134 ("The balance is essentially a wash, since some of the reasonableness factors weigh in favor of [defendant], but others weigh against it."); see also Roth v. Garcia Marquez, 942 F.2d 617, 625 (9th Cir. 1991) (finding exercise of jurisdiction was reasonable even though only two reasonableness factors favored plaintiff, while three favored defendant). Accordingly, exercising personal jurisdiction over defendants comports with fair play and substantial justice.

Finally, plaintiffs argue that, if the court finds personal jurisdiction is appropriate over some but not all claims, the court should exercise pendent jurisdiction over the remaining claims. Opp. at 18. They contend that NSO's unauthorized use 678*678 of WhatsApp's infrastructure underpins each of plaintiffs' claims. Id. at 19. Defendants do not address pendent jurisdiction.

"Personal jurisdiction must exist for each claim asserted against a defendant."[8] Action Embroidery Corp. v. Atl. Embroidery, Inc., 368 F.3d 1174, 1180 (9th Cir. 2004) (citing Data Disc, Inc. v. Sys. Tech. Assocs., Inc., 557 F.2d 1280, 1289 n.8 (9th Cir. 1977)). "[A] court may assert pendent personal jurisdiction over a defendant with respect to a claim for which there is no independent basis of personal jurisdiction so long as it arises out of a common nucleus of operative facts with a claim in the same suit over which the court does have personal jurisdiction." Id. In this case, the breach of contract claim involves the same common nucleus of operative facts as the tort claims and pendent jurisdiction is appropriate.

For the foregoing reasons, defendants' motion to dismiss the complaint for lack of personal jurisdiction is DENIED.

3. Failure to Join Necessary Parties

Defendants move to dismiss the complaint because plaintiffs failed to join defendants' foreign sovereign customers under Rule 19. Mtn. at 18. As an initial matter, defendants argue only that their customers are required parties under Rule 19(a)(1)(A), (id. at 19), and the court focuses its analysis on that provision.

Finding a party to be necessary under Rule 19(a)(1)(A) requires the court to determine that "complete relief" cannot be accorded between the existing parties absent the joinder of the nonparty. "This factor is concerned with consummate rather than partial or hollow relief as to those already parties, and with precluding multiple lawsuits on the same cause of action." Northrop Corp. v. McDonnell Douglas Corp., 705 F.2d 1030, 1043 (9th Cir. 1983) (citing Advisory Committee's Note, 39 F.R.D. 89, 91 (1966)). In conducting a Rule 19(a)(1)(A) analysis, courts ask whether the absence of the nonparty party would preclude the court from fashioning meaningful relief as between the parties. Id. at 1044. This prong only concerns current parties to the action. Disabled Rights Action Comm. v. Las Vegas Events, Inc., 375 F.3d 861, 879 (9th Cir. 2004); see also NGV Gaming, Ltd. v. Upstream Point Molate, LLC, 355 F. Supp. 2d 1061, 1068 (N.D. Cal. 2005) ("The effect a decision may have on the absent party is not material." (internal quotation marks and citation omitted)).

Here, the parties focus on whether the court can issue an injunction that would afford plaintiffs complete relief. The complaint requests the following: "[t]hat the Court enter a permanent injunction enjoining and restraining Defendants and their agents, servants, employees, successors, and assigns, and all other persons acting in concert with or conspiracy with 679*679 any of them or who are affiliated with Defendants from" various actions including accessing or attempting to access WhatsApp's service or platform. Compl., Request for Relief. There are two possible readings of the underlined language. On the one hand "all other persons acting in concert with or conspiracy with any of them" could be read as seeking an injunction against defendants' customers who both parties acknowledge are sovereign nations. On the other hand, the language could be read as standard boilerplate drawn from Rule 65(d)(2)(C) that does not necessarily bind the sovereign nations by requiring them to take an affirmative action.

In EEOC v. Peabody Western Coal Co., 610 F.3d 1070, 1079 (9th Cir. 2010), the Ninth Circuit encountered a similar Rule 19 challenge concerning the scope of potential injunctive relief. There, the defendant argued that a sovereign entity (previously a defendant to the suit but dismissed by an earlier appellate decision) was a necessary party because of the plaintiff's request for injunctive relief, using language drawn from Rule 65. Id. The court reasoned that the "better reading of the boilerplate language in the complaint" was that the plaintiff was not seeking injunctive relief against a non-party sovereign entity. This reasoning indicates that the better reading of plaintiffs' relief, which involves similar boilerplate language from Rule 65, is that plaintiffs are not seeking injunctive relief against defendants' foreign sovereign customers. Such reasoning is not a complete answer because Peabody Western relied, in part, on the fact that an earlier Ninth Circuit opinion in that case determined that the sovereign entity could not be sued. No such finding has been made in this case.

More importantly, defendants' customers are not required parties because the court can craft injunctive relief that excludes or carves out any sovereign nation. Peabody Western recognized as much stating, "the district court nonetheless erred in dismissing EEOC's suit. Because we had held in Peabody II that joinder of the Nation was feasible despite the unavailability of injunctive relief against it, the proper response of the district court would have been simply to deny EEOC's request for injunctive relief. 610 F.3d at 1080 (emphasis added). The district court in Broidy Capital Management, LLC v. Qatar, No. CV 18-2421-JFW(Ex), 2018 WL 6074570, at *10 (C.D. Cal. Aug. 8, 2018), arrived at a similar conclusion in a CFAA case involving the sovereign nation of Qatar. The district court determined that Qatar was a necessary party under Rule 19(a)(1)(A) because "[p]laintiffs seek injunctive relief prohibiting all defendants including Qatar, from accessing Plaintiffs' protected computers without authorization ...." Id. at *9. However, the court determined that Qatar was not an indispensable party because relief could be effected without Qatar. Id. at *10 ("[A]ny potential prejudice by Qatar's absence from this action can be lessened or avoided entirely by crafting injunctive relief that would affect only the remaining defendants, and not Qatar."). Though the court resolved the Rule 19 analysis at the subdivision (b) step, the reasoning is applicable to the Rule 19(a) analysis.

Defendants rely on the holding from Republic of Philippines v. Pimentel, 553 U.S. 851, 867, 128 S.Ct. 2180, 171 L.Ed.2d 131 (2008), that "[a] case may not proceed when a required-entity sovereign is not amenable to suit." In Pimentel, "[t]he application of subdivision (a) of Rule 19 [was] not contested" and the foreign sovereigns in that case were "required entities." Id. at 863-64, 128 S.Ct. 2180. Pimentel's analysis proceeds from the starting point that the sovereign is a necessary (or required party) under Rule 19(a). Thus, Pimentel is 680*680 distinguishable because Rule 19(a) is contested in this case and Peabody Western controls the Rule 19(a)(1)(A) analysis and outcome. Because defendants' foreign sovereign customers are not necessary parties, Pimentel's holding does not apply.

For the foregoing reasons, defendants' motion to dismiss the complaint for failure to join necessary parties is DENIED.

4. Failure to State a Claim

a. First Claim: CFAA

"The CFAA prohibits acts of computer trespass by those who are not authorized users or who exceed authorized use." Facebook, Inc. v. Power Ventures, Inc., 844 F.3d 1058, 1065 (9th Cir. 2016). "It creates criminal and civil liability for whoever "intentionally accesses a computer without authorization or exceeds authorized access, and thereby obtains ... information from any protected computer." Id. at 1065-66 (alteration in original) (quoting 18 U.S.C. § 1030(a)(2)(C)). "The statute thus provides two ways of committing the crime of improperly accessing a protected computer: (1) obtaining access without authorization; and (2) obtaining access with authorization but then using that access improperly." Musacchio v. United States, ___ U.S. ___, 136 S. Ct. 709, 713, 193 L.Ed.2d 639 (2016). "[T]he CFAA is best understood as an anti-intrusion statute and not as a `misappropriation statute.'" hiQ Labs, Inc. v. LinkedIn Corp., 938 F.3d 985, 1000 (9th Cir. 2019) (quoting United States v. Nosal ("Nosal I"), 676 F.3d 854, 857-58 (9th Cir. 2012) (en banc)). The operative question is whether "the conduct at issue is analogous to `breaking and entering.'" Id. at 1001 (citation omitted).

i. WhatsApp's Servers

Defendants argue that the allegations in the complaint are analogous to LVRC Holdings LLC v. Brekka, 581 F.3d 1127 (9th Cir. 2009), because, as WhatsApp users, they had authorization, pursuant to the terms of service, to access WhatsApp's computers and servers to send messages over the WhatsApp app. Mtn. at 21. Plaintiffs respond that whether access to a computer is "authorized" depends on actions by the computer's owner to grant or deny permission. Opp. at 20. In this case, no WhatsApp user had permission to access the technical call settings or evade WhatsApp's security and, thus, there was no authorization. Id. at 21.

In Brekka, 581 F.3d at 1129, an employee was given permission by his employer to access the employer's website using an administrative login that gave the employee broad access to the data on the website. During this time, the employee emailed documents he obtained to his personal computer. Id. The employee eventually ceased working for the employer but continued to use his administrative login, which had not been revoked by the employer, to access the employer's website. Id. at 1130.

The court first determined that because the employer gave the employee permission to access a company computer, the employee could not have been acting "without authorization." Id. at 1133. Further, an employee is not acting "without authorization" simply because the "employee resolves to use the computer contrary to the employer's interest." Id. In support of that conclusion, the court examined the difference between the "without authorization" and "exceeds authorized access" prongs of the CFAA. The CFAA defines the term "exceeds authorized access" as meaning "to access a computer with authorization and to use such access to obtain or alter information in the computer that the accesser is not entitled so to obtain or alter." 18 U.S.C. § 1030(e)(6).

As this definition makes clear, an individual who is authorized to use a computer *681 for certain purposes but goes beyond those limitations is considered by the CFAA as someone who has "exceed[ed] authorized access." ... In other words, for purposes of the CFAA, when an employer authorizes an employee to use a company computer subject to certain limitations, the employee remains authorized to use the computer even if the employee violates those limitations.

Brekka, 581 F.3d at 1133 (first alteration in original). The court then summarized the two prongs as follows: "a person who `intentionally accesses a computer without authorization,' accesses a computer without any permission at all, while a person who `exceeds authorized access,' has permission to access the computer, but accesses information on the computer that the person is not entitled to access." Id. (citing 18 U.S.C. § 1030(a)(2), (a)(4)).

Applying here, the complaint confirms that "[d]efendants created WhatsApp accounts that they used and caused to be used to send malicious code to Target Devices in April and May 2019." Compl. ¶ 33. By creating WhatsApp accounts and accepting the terms of service, defendants, as is true of any WhatsApp user, had authorization to send messages using the WhatsApp app, which would be transmitted over WhatsApp's servers. For that reason, this case is similar to the Brekka employee's conduct prior to his termination because defendants here had at least some level of authorized access to the protected computers in question. Therefore, the facts alleged are not an instance where a person accesses a computer without any permission at all. With regard to the WhatsApp servers, plaintiffs have not stated a claim for a violation of 18 U.S.C. § 1030(a)(2) and (a)(4) by intentionally accessing information on a protected computer "without authorization."

This is not the end of the inquiry because the factual allegations detail conduct that meets the "exceeds authorized access" prong of 18 U.S.C. § 1030(a)(2) and (a)(4). WhatsApp imposes certain limitations on accessing portions of its servers, such as prohibiting access to the technical call settings. Defendants are alleged to have created a program that went beyond those restrictions by evading WhatsApp's security features and manipulating the technical call settings. For example, plaintiffs allege that defendants used their program to "avoid the technical restrictions built into WhatsApp Signaling Servers" and "formatted call initiation messages containing malicious code to appear like a legitimate call and concealed the code within call settings." Compl. ¶ 37. Defendants' program would then use "WhatsApp servers to route malicious code, which masqueraded as a series of legitimate calls and call settings, to a Target Device using telephone number (202) XXX-XXXX." Id. ¶ 38. Defendants also are alleged to have used "WhatsApp's Relay Servers without authorization to send encrypted data packets designed to activate the malicious code injected into the memory of the Target Devices." Id. ¶ 39. These factual allegations meet the definition of exceeds authorized access because defendants had permission to access a portion of the computer in question (the WhatsApp servers) but did not have permission to access other portions. See Nosal I, 676 F.3d at 857 ("[A]ssume an employee is permitted to access only product information on the company's computer but accesses customer data: He would "exceed [] authorized access" if he looks at the customer lists." (second alteration in original)).

Defendants offer two rejoinders to the exceeds authorized access prong. Neither is persuasive. First, defendants argue that even if the court applies the "exceeds *682 authorized access" prong of the CFAA, the Ninth Circuit has held that the CFAA does not apply to "violations of corporate computer use restrictions." Mtn. at 21-22 (quoting Nosal I, 676 F.3d at 862). Defendants are correct that "a violation of the terms of use of a website—without more— cannot establish liability under the CFAA." Power Ventures, 844 F.3d at 1067. Plaintiffs' allegations go beyond any restrictions imposed by WhatsApp's terms of service because they allege that defendants' program "avoid[ed] the technical restrictions built into WhatsApp Signaling Servers." Compl. ¶ 37. Avoiding technical restrictions goes beyond any contractual limits imposed by the terms of service. See Nosal I, 676 F.3d at 863 (purpose of CFAA is "to punish hacking—the circumvention of technological access barriers").

Second, defendants cite hiQ Labs for the proposition that technical restrictions imposed by plaintiffs cannot state a "without authorization" theory. Reply at 13. That case involved a data scraping company that scraped LinkedIn's servers for information that was publicly available. hiQ Labs, 938 F.3d at 992. The court summarized:

it appears that the CFAA's prohibition on accessing a computer "without authorization" is violated when a person circumvents a computer's generally applicable rules regarding access permissions, such as username and password requirements, to gain access to a computer. It is likely that when a computer network generally permits public access to its data, a user's accessing that publicly available data will not constitute access without authorization under the CFAA. The data hiQ seeks to access is not owned by LinkedIn and has not been demarcated by LinkedIn as private using such an authorization system.

Id. at 1003-04. hiQ Labs turned on the fact that the data in question was publicly available, not owned by LinkedIn, and the servers in question were not protected by generally applicable access permissions. Those facts are not present here. The information defendants are alleged to have accessed is private and WhatsApp's servers are protected from access by generally applicable access permissions.

In sum, plaintiffs have stated a claim for violation of 18 U.S.C. § 1030(a)(2) and (a)(4) under the exceeds authorized access prong.

ii. Harm Based on Access to Users' Devices

Next, defendants argue that, with regard to alleging a claim based on accessing individual users' devices without authorization, plaintiffs did not suffer a loss as defined by the CFAA. This argument stems from plaintiffs' allegations that defendants accessed "Target Devices" (i.e., individual user's devices) without authorization. Compl. ¶¶ 53-54. As plaintiffs point out, the Ninth Circuit has held that a plaintiff can recover for violation of the CFAA when a defendant accesses a third party's device as long as the plaintiff is harmed by such an act, particularly if the plaintiff has a right to data stored on the third party device. Theofel v. Farey-Jones, 359 F.3d 1066, 1078 (9th Cir. 2004).

With respect to harm, "[t]he statute permits a private right of action when a party has suffered a loss of at least $5,000 during a one-year period." Power Ventures, 844 F.3d at 1066 (citing 18 U.S.C. § 1030(c)(4)(A)(i)(I)). CFAA defines "loss" as "any reasonable cost to any victim, including the cost of responding to an offense, conducting a damage assessment, and restoring the data, program, system, or information to its condition prior to the offense, and any revenue lost, cost incurred, or other consequential damages incurred because of interruption of service." § 1030(e)(11).

*683 Here, plaintiffs' alleged losses include the expenditure of resources to investigate and remediate defendants' conduct. This type of loss is described by the statute's reference to "the cost of responding to an offense." 18 U.S.C. § 1030(e)(11). Defendants do not quarrel with this interpretation but instead contend that plaintiffs' loss derived from responding to a vulnerability in the WhatsApp system and not to the accessing of information on individual users' devices. Mtn. at 22. Citing Theofel, defendants argue that a plaintiff would be injured by a defendant's access to a third party's device if the plaintiff had rights to data stored on the device. Id.

However, as plaintiffs point out, they have alleged rights to at least some data on users' devices.[9] Moreover, they have alleged that they incurred costs responding to the unauthorized access to users' phones by upgrading the WhatsApp system in response to defendants' intrusion. See Multiven, Inc. v. Cisco Sys., Inc., 725 F. Supp. 2d 887, 895 (N.D. Cal. 2010) ("It is sufficient to show that there has been an impairment to the integrity of data ... and the rightful computer owner must take corrective measures `to prevent the infiltration and gathering of confidential information.'" (quoting Shurgard Storage Ctrs., Inc. v. Safeguard Self Storage, Inc., 119 F. Supp. 2d 1121, 1126-27 (W.D. Wash. 2000))). These allegations are sufficient to state a claim for loss based on responding to an offense on a third party's device.

Finally, assuming the court determines that plaintiffs' CFAA § 1030(a)(2) and (a)(4) claims survive the motion to dismiss, then the conspiracy claim under § 1030(b) would also survive because the only argument defendants make as to the conspiracy claim is that plaintiffs cannot state a claim under § 1030(a)(2) or (a)(4).

For the foregoing reasons, defendants' motion to dismiss plaintiffs' first cause of action for violation of the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act is DENIED.

b. Fourth Claim: Trespass to Chattels

"Under California law, trespass to chattels `lies where an intentional interference with the possession of personal property has proximately caused injury.'" Intel Corp. v. Hamidi, 30 Cal. 4th 1342, 1350-51, 1 Cal.Rptr.3d 32, 71 P.3d 296 (2003) (emphasis omitted) (quoting Thrifty-Tel, Inc. v. Bezenek, 46 Cal. App. 4th 1559, 1566, 54 Cal.Rptr.2d 468 (Ct. App. 1996)). A plaintiff may only recover "the actual damages suffered by reason of the impairment of the property or the loss of its use." Id. (emphasis omitted) (quoting Zaslow v. Kroenert, 29 Cal. 2d 541, 551, 176 P.2d 1 (1946)). To state a trespass to chattels claim, a plaintiff must plead that "(1) the defendant intentionally and without authorization interfered with plaintiff's possessory interest in the computer system; and (2) defendant's unauthorized use[ ] proximately caused damage." Brodsky v. Apple Inc., 445 F. Supp. 3d 110, 121-22, No. 19-CV-00712-LHK (N.D. Cal. Apr. 7, 2020) (alteration in original) (quoting In re Facebook Internet Tracking Litig., 263 F. Supp. 3d 836, 842 (N.D. Cal. 2017)).

In this case, defendants argue that plaintiffs cannot state a claim for trespass to chattels because they have not alleged that defendants' conduct caused actual damage to plaintiffs' servers. Mtn. at 23. Defendants contend that plaintiffs' allegations concerning investigating and remediation of defendants' conduct is not 684*684 harm to their servers. Id. While plaintiffs allege that the conduct burdened plaintiffs' computer network, defendants argue that such an allegation is unsupported by any factual allegations. Id. at 24. Plaintiffs respond that trespass to chattels includes claims that a defendant interfered with the intended functioning of a system and defendants have done so in here. Opp. at 24. Plaintiffs aver that the value of their system is based on their ability to securely and accurately transmit communications between users and argue that NSO's misuse of that system interfered with its intended functioning. Id. Plaintiffs focus not on the quantity of messages sent but the effect of those messages in impairing the integrity, quality, and value of WhatsApp's services. Id. at 25.

The leading California case on electronic trespass to chattels is Intel Corp. v. Hamidi, 30 Cal. 4th at 1347, 1 Cal.Rptr.3d 32, 71 P.3d 296, where the California Supreme Court held that trespass to chattels "does not encompass ... an electronic communication that neither damages the recipient computer system nor impairs its functioning." In Hamidi, Intel alleged that the defendant used Intel's email system to send six mass email to Intel's employees that criticized Intel's employment practices, urged Intel's employees to find other employment, and other anti-Intel messaging. Id. at 1348-49, 1 Cal.Rptr.3d 32, 71 P.3d 296. The mass emails did not involve the defendant breaching Intel's security and did not damage, slow, or impair Intel's computer system. Id. at 1349, 1 Cal. Rptr.3d 32, 71 P.3d 296. The court reasoned that "the undisputed evidence revealed no actual or threatened damage to Intel's computer hardware or software and no interference with its ordinary and intended operation." Id. at 1352-53, 1 Cal. Rptr.3d 32, 71 P.3d 296.

The following passage from the opinion succinctly summarizes the key issues relevant here:

[W]e conclude that under California law the tort does not encompass, and should not be extended to encompass, an electronic communication that neither damages the recipient computer system nor impairs its functioning. Such an electronic communication does not constitute an actionable trespass to personal property, i.e., the computer system, because it does not interfere with the possessor's use or possession of, or any other legally protected interest in, the personal property itself. The consequential economic damage Intel claims to have suffered, i.e., loss of productivity caused by employees reading and reacting to Hamidi's messages and company efforts to block the messages, is not an injury to the company's interest in its computers—which worked as intended and were unharmed by the communications—any more than the personal distress caused by reading an unpleasant letter would be an injury to the recipient's mailbox, or the loss of privacy caused by an intrusive telephone call would be an injury to the recipient's telephone equipment.

Id. at 1347, 1 Cal.Rptr.3d 32, 71 P.3d 296 (citations omitted).

This case is similar to Hamidi because the alleged actions did not degrade or damage WhatsApp's servers. Nor do plaintiffs advance the argument that approximately 1,400 messages out of the 1.5 billion people in 180 countries who use the WhatsApp service (Compl. ¶ 17) impaired the physical functioning of WhatsApp's servers. In fact, defendants' program was reliant on WhatsApp's servers to function exactly as intended. Defendants' program is alleged to emulate legitimate WhatsApp network traffic in order to transmit malicious 685*685 code, undetected, to a user's device over WhatsApp's servers. Id. ¶ 35.

Nonetheless, plaintiffs contend that defendants impaired the value and quality of WhatsApp's servers by designing a program that concealed malicious code and made it appear that WhatsApp, rather than defendants, sent the code. Opp. at 24. This argument conflates the impairment of the value and quality of WhatsApp's servers with the impairment to "the integrity, quality, and value of WhatsApp's services." Id. at 25 (emphasis added). Plaintiffs have not alleged that the value of the servers were degraded as a result defendants' actions. Instead, they only plead consequential economic damages, such as the expenditure of resources[10] responding to the breach, and the loss of goodwill in WhatsApp's business due to a perceived weakness in WhatsApp's encryption or its services. Compl. ¶ 78. Hamidi forecloses consequential economic damages, 30 Cal. 4th at 1347, 1 Cal.Rptr.3d 32, 71 P.3d 296, and questioned whether the "loss of business reputation and customer goodwill" is cognizable under an action for trespass to chattels. Id. at 1358, 1 Cal.Rptr.3d 32, 71 P.3d 296. Arguing that goodwill is cognizable, plaintiffs only cite out of circuit cases that did not apply Hamidi, Microsoft Corp. v. Does 1-18, No. 13cv139 (LMB/TCB), 2014 WL 1338677, at *10 (E.D. Va. Apr. 2, 2014); CompuServe Inc. v. Cyber Promotions, Inc., 962 F. Supp. 1015, 1023 (S.D. Ohio 1997), but district courts applying Hamidi and addressing similar financial injuries have found that a financial injury resulting from a trespass to a computer is not an actual harm actionable, see Hiossen, Inc. v. Kim, No. CV1601579SJOMRWX, 2016 WL 10987365, at *11 (C.D. Cal. Aug. 17, 2016); Fields v. Wise Media, LLC, No. C 12-05160 WHA, 2013 WL 5340490, at *4 (N.D. Cal. Sept. 24, 2013).

Plaintiffs are correct in pointing out that Hamidi did not explicitly foreclose a goodwill argument and the court considered such economic injuries as an alternative argument. 30 Cal. 4th at 1358, 1 Cal. Rptr.3d 32, 71 P.3d 296. The court went on to reject such an argument because the complaint did not concern the functioning of the computer system, but the content of the emails. Id. Even if this court were to follow a similar course and consider plaintiffs' allegations concerning goodwill, plaintiffs have not alleged that they have lost goodwill or customers because of the impairment to WhatsApp's servers as opposed to impairment of WhatsApp's service. Cf. CompuServe Inc., 962 F. Supp. at 1023 ("Many subscribers have terminated their accounts specifically because of the unwanted receipt of bulk e-mail messages. Defendants' intrusions into CompuServe's computer systems, insofar as they harm plaintiff's business reputation and goodwill with its customers, are actionable under Restatement § 218(d)." (emphasis added) (citations omitted)).

Finally, plaintiffs cite several cases, including Craigslist Inc. v. 3Taps Inc., 942 F. Supp. 2d 962, 981 (N.D. Cal. 2013), Coupons, Inc. v. Stottlemire, No. CV 07-03457 HRL, 2008 WL 3245006, at *6 (N.D. Cal. July 2, 2008), and Thrifty-Tel, 46 Cal. App. 4th at 1564, 1566, 54 Cal.Rptr.2d 468, for 686*686 the proposition that courts routinely find cognizable injury when the defendant impaired the ability of a plaintiff's equipment to serve customers as intended. Craigslist and Coupons, Inc. only stand for the proposition that whether the defendants caused actual damage or impairment to the computer systems was a question of fact more appropriate for summary judgment or trial than for a motion to dismiss. This point is true, assuming plaintiffs can allege actual harm. Thrifty-Tel, 46 Cal. App. 4th at 1564, 54 Cal.Rptr.2d 468, involved a computer hack that "den[ied] some subscribers access to phone lines." Plaintiffs in this case have not alleged that any WhatsApp customer was deprived or denied access to the WhatsApp system. The lack of an allegation similar to Thrifty-Tel only reinforces the conclusion that, as currently alleged, the complaint does not detail any actual harm caused by defendants' program or access to WhatsApp's computers or servers.

For the foregoing reasons, plaintiffs' fourth cause of action for trespass to chattels is DISMISSED WITH LEAVE TO AMEND.

5. Motion to Stay Discovery

While the present motion to dismiss was pending, defendants subsequently filed a motion to stay discovery pending final resolution of their motion to dismiss. Dkt. 95. Defendants argue that because their motion is based in part on a foreign sovereign immunity argument, they should be free from all burdens of litigation. Id. at 2. They also argue that good cause exists to stay discovery pending disposition of the motion beyond the sovereign immunity argument. Id. at 3-4.

Defendants advance no reason to stay discovery other than the pending motion to dismiss. Because this order adjudicates their pending motion, defendants' request to stay discovery is moot. Accordingly, the court DENIES AS MOOT defendants' motion to stay discovery.

CONCLUSION

For the foregoing reasons, the court GRANTS defendants' Rule 12(b)(6) motion to dismiss plaintiffs' fourth cause of action for trespass to chattels but DENIES their motion in all other respects. The court further DENIES AS MOOT defendants' motion to stay discovery. Because plaintiffs have not alleged actual harm, the court is skeptical that the fourth cause of action can be amended to state a claim. That said, it is not clear that amendment would be futile. Plaintiffs shall file any amended complaint within 21 days of the date of this order to amend only the fourth cause of action. No new parties or causes of action may be pleaded without leave of court or the agreement of defendants. Upon the filing of any amended complaint, plaintiffs must also file a redline clearly demarcating their changes from the existing complaint.

IT IS SO ORDERED.

[1] Defendants suggest that derivative immunity is grounded in the common law of foreign sovereign immunity and that Butters v. Vance International, Inc., 225 F.3d 462 (4th Cir. 2000), applied the common law of foreign sovereign immunity. Reply at 10. Defendants appear to be merging two distinct doctrines, foreign official immunity and derivative sovereign immunity. For clarity, the court only addresses foreign official immunity in this section and then addresses derivative immunity, as discussed in Butters.

[2] Other circuits are split on the issue of whether Yearsley constitutes a rule of jurisdictional immunity. Compare Adkisson v. Jacobs Eng'g Grp., Inc., 790 F.3d 641, 647 (6th Cir. 2015) ("Yearsley immunity is, in our opinion, closer in nature to qualified immunity for private individuals under government contract, which is an issue to be reviewed on the merits rather than for jurisdiction.") (citing Filarsky v. Delia, 566 U.S. 377, 389-92, 132 S.Ct. 1657, 182 L.Ed.2d 662 (2012)); Ackerson v. Bean Dredging LLC, 589 F.3d 196, 207 (5th Cir. 2009) ("Yearsley does not discuss sovereign immunity or otherwise address the court's power to hear the case ...."), with Cunningham v. Gen. Dynamics Info. Tech., Inc., 888 F.3d 640, 650 (4th Cir. 2018) (reaffirming holding that "Yearsley doctrine operates as a jurisdictional bar to suit and not as a merits defense to liability"). Because the court can resolve the derivative sovereign immunity question on other grounds, it need not wade into the circuit split concerning whether a Yearsley defense is jurisdictional.

[3] In a case cited by defendants, Moriah v. Bank of China Ltd., 107 F. Supp. 3d 272, 277 n.4 (S.D.N.Y. 2015), the district court cited Butters while discussing derivative foreign sovereign immunity as applied to a foreign official. However, the court's reasoning applied the "`two-step procedure' to assess common-law claims of foreign sovereign immunity" required by Samantar. Id. at 276 & n.27 (quoting Samantar, 560 U.S. at 312, 130 S.Ct. 2278). Thus, the court's citation of Butters was not necessary to its finding and did not discuss the distinction between derivative sovereign immunity and foreign official immunity.

[4] Plaintiffs request the court judicially notice information from nonparty QuadraNet's website. Dkt. 56. Specifically, plaintiffs request the court notice QuadraNet's terms of service as it appeared on its website on January 29, 2019 and the current version of the terms of service, which became effective March 4, 2020. Id. at 2-3. The request is unopposed. Generally, when considering whether to grant a request for judicial notice, a court may consider factual information from the internet as long as the facts are not subject to reasonable dispute. See, e.g., Perkins v. LinkedIn Corp., 53 F. Supp. 3d 1190, 1204 (N.D. Cal. 2014). Accordingly, the court GRANTS plaintiffs' request for judicial notice.

[5] Civil Local Rule 7-3(c) permits declarations to be submitted with a reply brief. Civil Local Rule 7-3(d)(1) permits an opposing party to file an objection to "new evidence [that] has been submitted in the reply ...." Plaintiffs did not file an objection (timely or otherwise) to the supplemental declaration.

[6] Defendants would distinguish Seattle Sperm Bank on the grounds that the plaintiff in that case intentionally stole data from the servers, which defendants are not alleged to have done here. Reply at 7 n.9. The difference between the misappropriation of trade secrets tort alleged in Seattle Sperm Bank, 2018 WL 3769803, at *2, and the trespass to chattels and unauthorized access torts alleged here is not material for purposes of express aiming. Both cases involve an intentional tort that seeks access to a computer system without permission.

[7] While Walden reaffirmed that a defendant's conduct remains the touchstone of specific jurisdiction, the Court expressly reserved deciding the amount of minimum contacts "where intentional torts are committed via the Internet or other electronic means (e.g., fraudulent access of financial accounts or `phishing' schemes)." Walden, 571 U.S. at 290 n.9, 134 S.Ct. 1115. The Court characterized intentional torts committed using electronic means as "present[ing] the very different questions whether and how a defendant's virtual `presence' and conduct translate into `contacts' with a particular State." Id. This footnote reinforces the court's conclusion that where a defendant enters a forum state with malicious code and seeks out servers owned by a plaintiff in that forum state and then commits an intentional tort, such conduct is sufficient to find personal jurisdiction.

[8] The court uses the term "pendent personal jurisdiction" to distinguish the concept from the supplemental jurisdiction statute, 28 U.S.C. § 1367. As explained by a leading treatise:

In recent years, there has been some debate about whether Section 1367 of Title 28, the supplemental jurisdiction statute, should be read to include the doctrine of pendent personal jurisdiction. Neither the plain meaning of this statute, which shows it to be a subject matter jurisdiction provision, nor its legislative history supports the conclusion that Congress intended Section 1367 to include personal jurisdiction .... [I]f pendent personal jurisdiction exists, it must be properly understood to be a federal common law doctrine. For the sake of clarity, this section will refer to "pendent personal jurisdiction" rather than "supplemental personal jurisdiction" to highlight the fact that Section 1367 should not be read to subsume personal as well as subject matter jurisdiction.

4A Wright & Miller, Federal Practice & Procedure, § 1069.7 (4th ed. 2020).

 

[9] Plaintiffs assert that the WhatsApp terms of service, which are referenced in the complaint, provide for WhatsApp to retain intellectual property rights on a user's device. Opp. at 23 (citing Compl. ¶ 19). Defendants do not appear to contest this point.

[10] In support of harm due to responding to a digital attack, plaintiffs cite Twitch Interactive, Inc. v. Does 1 Through 100, No. 19-CV-03418-WHO, 2019 WL 3718582, at *4 (N.D. Cal. Aug. 7, 2019), where the plaintiff asserted that the "defendants' breach caused it lost profits and led it to expend resources to combat the attack." Twitch is not persuasive because the court cited that harm in its analysis concerning the plaintiff's breach of contract claim, not its trespass to chattels claim. Further, due to the procedural posture of that case, the court did not engage at length with the actual harm argument advanced by defendants in this case.