Main Content
As you review these materials:
In the previous section, the disputes revolved around the meaning of the terms in the contract.
In this section, in each of the disputes (or problems) one of the parties argues that there is a term that is part of the agreement even though the parties did not discuss it, agree on it, or write it down. In other words, there is an argument that the court should imply a term into the agreement.
Does this make sense to you? Why are the courts willing to do this?
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